MOA 180 - Electronic Medical Records » Fall 2020 » Exam 1
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Question #1
Which of the following is a FALSE statement concerning the Affordable Care Act?
A.
The Act will streamline administrative processes.
B.
The Act will restrict the types of insurance coverage available.
C.
The Act will improve quality of care through expanded measurements.
D.
The Act will reduce costs by introducing new models of payment.
Question #2
The ACA mandates that individuals under this age can remain on their parent's health insurance policy if they do not qualify for coverage on their own.
A.
30
B.
21
C.
26
D.
18
Question #3
HITECH is a part of what larger Act?
A.
ARRA
B.
HIPAA
C.
ONC
D.
ACA
Question #4
HITECH provides incentive payments in order to support the development of what type of electronic health record?
A.
Certified
B.
All of these
C.
Meaningful
D.
Interoperable
Question #5
The maximum range for incentive payments among Medicare and Medicaid incentive programs for the electronic health record is:
A.
$25,775–$50,755.
B.
$50,000–$75,750.
C.
$44,000–$63,750.
D.
$10,000–$20,000.
Question #6
Stage 3 Meaningful Use can be illustrated by:
A.
improved outcomes.
B.
digital and telemedicine enhancements in treatments.
C.
collecting information for patient engagement.
D.
all of these.
Question #7
Communications, information sharing, and decision making that include the patient and are managed by both the patient and the provider are part of:
A.
health information management.
B.
patient-centric care.
C.
clinical decision support.
D.
meaningful use of documentation.
Question #8
After rounds, the nurse practitioner enters the patient characteristics, symptomatology, and lab values into a database that provides instructions and directives for possible treatment and care plans according to the diagnosis. This is illustrative of a(an):
A.
electronic health record.
B.
clinical decision support system.
C.
patient portal.
D.
Meaningful Use component.
Question #9
In a single course of illness, the patient was seen by her primary care physician, referred to a specialist, admitted for outpatient surgery, and then discharged with home health. These episodes are an example of a(an):
A.
high-level medical encounter.
B.
continuum of care.
C.
patient engagement.
D.
managed care plan.
Question #10
A large research hospital facility, such as the Mayo Clinic, that performs procedures on a clinical trial basis and trains various levels of interns and residents would be referred to as what type of care?
A.
Tertiary
B.
Quarternary
C.
Primary
D.
Secondary
Question #11
What type of ambulatory care is provided for patients who are seen without a prior appointment for problems that need prompt attention but are not emergency in level?
A.
Ambulatory clinic
B.
Independent practice association
C.
Urgent care center
D.
Ambulatory surgery center
Question #12
A group of physicians that contracts with a managed care organization to provide care at a pre-determined, pre-negotiated rate is a(an):
A.
independent practice association.
B.
integrated delivery network.
C.
ambulatory practice association.
D.
capitated practice.
Question #13
Which credential is held by a cancer registrar?
A.
CMRS
B.
CTR
C.
CCS
D.
AAPC
Question #14
Recovery audit contractors, whose purpose is to recover improper Medicare funds, were instituted under which act of Congress?
A.
Affordable Healthcare Act of 2010
B.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
C.
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009
D.
Medicare Modernization Act of 2013
Question #15
The internal RAC coordinator position requires that a person do which of the following?
A.
Coordinate claims reimbursement
B.
Send bills to insurance companies
C.
Code charts
D.
Audit charts for deficiencies
Question #16
Health information professionals, previously known as "record librarians," were first organized where?
A.
Blue Cross of Texas
B.
Massachusetts General Hospital
C.
Johns Hopkins University
D.
Baylor University
Question #17
The first credential for a HIM professional was:
A.
RHIA.
B.
CCS.
C.
ART.
D.
RRL.
Question #18
What was the purpose for establishing the professional organization ARLNA in 1928?
A.
To elevate the status of individuals who processed medical records
B.
To assist with documentation
C.
To teach individuals how to code correctly
D.
To write laws for compliance and security
Question #19
What group was formed in 1951 to survey facilities with a set of standards and, if the facility met those standards, it became accredited?
A.
Office of Inspector General
B.
OASIS
C.
The Joint Commission
D.
HEDIS
Question #20
AMIA focuses on which part of electronic health information?
A.
Integrity
B.
Security
C.
Compliance
D.
Technology
Question #21
Software that recognizes the dictation of a provider is called:
A.
epic voice recognition software.
B.
voice recognition software.
C.
transcription software.
D.
speech conversion software.
Question #22
The independent accrediting organization that serves the public interest by establishing and enforcing quality educational standards in health information is known as:
A.
CAHIIM.
B.
AHIMA.
C.
HIMSS.
D.
OASIS.
Question #23
What does RHIA mean?
A.
Recommended Health Information Accessor
B.
Registered Health Information Accessor
C.
Registered Health Integrity Administrator
D.
Registered Health Information Administrator
Question #24
What requirements are needed for an individual to obtain the RHIA credential?
A.
Associate degree only
B.
Bachelor's degree only
C.
Associate degree and pass the RHIT exam
D.
Bachelor's degree and pass the RHIA exam
Question #25
Which of the following is NOT a qualifying factor to sit for the CCS credential?
A.
2 years' coding experience
B.
Master's in health informatics
C.
Successful completion of a coding certificate program
D.
RHIT, RHIA, or CCA credential
Question #26
A goal of IDNs is to:
A.
move healthcare towards nursing centered care.
B.
increase government profitability for Meaningful Use technology.
C.
accomplish the standards of Meaningful Use.
D.
advance the skills of allied health technicians.
Question #27
Using a certified EHR to improve quality, safety, and efficiency while engaging the patient to improve the coordination of care and public health is known as:
A.
population health management.
B.
integrated delivery network.
C.
Meaningful Use.
D.
health information exchange.
Question #28
Efficiently integrating HIT and health information exchange into facilities, providing better continuity of care to patients, positioning healthcare strategically for changes in reimbursement, and competing at a higher level on quality and costs of healthcare all represent goals of:
A.
health information exchange.
B.
Meaningful Use.
C.
integrated delivery networks.
D.
population health management.
Question #29
The goal of what healthcare model is to pay providers to improve the health outcomes of a group of patients and therefore reduce health inequities across the population regardless of environmental and cultural constraints?
A.
Integrated health delivery
B.
Health care exchange
C.
Integrated health delivery network
D.
Population health management
Question #30
The reimbursement scheme for population health management is also referred to as:
A.
shared savings.
B.
all of these.
C.
fee-for-value.
D.
pay-for-performance.
Question #31
In the United States, the current reimbursement scheme is shifting:
A.
towards fee-for-service.
B.
away from pay-for-performance.
C.
away from value-based performance.
D.
towards pay-for-performance.
Question #32
CMS expects the majority of healthcare in the United States to be delivered through shared savings organizations by:
A.
2050
B.
2040
C.
2020
D.
2030
Question #33
Which of the following points will be of major importance under pay-for-performance reimbursement schemes in the United States?
A.
Level of improvement of patient population
B.
Language barriers between patients and providers
C.
Poverty level of patients assigned
D.
Number of patients covered
Question #34
Accountable care requires frequent, high-quality:
A.
interventions.
B.
preventative care.
C.
long-term care.
D.
office visits.
Question #35
In order to move to pay-for-performance, providers need to compare data across the delivery system from physician offices, acute care hospitals, and long-term care providers. The collection of data to provide information for this transition will demand increased:
A.
interoperability.
B.
software applications.
C.
all of these.
D.
infrastructure.
Question #36
Being able to extract information from the data system within an ACO and to construct a plan of care for the patient at the time of his/her encounter and subsequent discharge is characteristic of:
A.
data mining.
B.
population health management.
C.
all of these.
D.
real-time data analysis.
Question #37
Every healthcare facility that treats patients must keep which of the following?
A.
A file cabinet for storing patient records
B.
An EHR to keep track of each patient encounter
C.
An index card with each patient's contact information
D.
A record of each patient divided into individual encounters
Question #38
The time that a record is retained by a facility is:
A.
five years.
B.
indefinitely.
C.
ten years.
D.
according to a policy written by the facility that addresses the length of time.
Question #39
In the warehousing method of archiving, medical records are filed:
A.
by the date the patient was last seen.
B.
alphabetically.
C.
by medical record number.
D.
by date of retention expiration.
Question #40
When storing digital records, which of the following is too expensive to use?
A.
Server storage
B.
Magnetic tape storage
C.
Printing and warehousing
D.
Optical disk
Question #41
The term concurrent analysis is also known as:
A.
business analysis.
B.
patient analysis.
C.
quantitative analysis.
D.
reviewing the record after the patient is discharged.
Question #42
Every healthcare facility that treats patients must keep which of the following?
A.
A record of each patient divided into individual encounters
B.
An index card with each patient's contact information
C.
A file cabinet for storing patient records
D.
An EHR to keep track of each patient encounter
Question #43
A patient arrives at a hospital to have a pre-operative consultation with an ENT. The information mailed to the patient stated that the patient should report to the registration department on arrival before going to the department of otolaryngology. This is an example of what type of registration process?
A.
Centralized
B.
Localized
C.
Decentralized
D.
Systemized
Question #44
One of the ways that disaster recovery might be supported for a smaller facility is by using:
A.
tape backup.
B.
cloud services.
C.
none of these.
D.
paper records.
Question #45
Several different types of data are gathered during the registration process. Administrative data include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
insurance name.
B.
full name.
C.
phone number.
D.
diagnosis.
Question #46
A patient is admitted with symptoms of fever and abdominal pain. These presenting symptoms are an example of what type of data?
A.
Administrative data
B.
Diagnosis data
C.
Clinical data
D.
Demographic data
Question #47
What is the retention period for the Master Patient (Person) Index?
A.
10–15 years
B.
There is no retention period. It's permanent.
C.
20–30 years
D.
1–5 years
Question #48
When a new patient is seen at a facility, what unique identifier is assigned for the encounter?
A.
Data element
B.
Medical record number
C.
Registration number
D.
Master patient index
Question #49
How often should a patient's administrative data be updated after his/her first visit?
A.
Administrative data should be updated annually during a review process.
B.
The data are never changed.
C.
Administrative data should be reviewed on every visit and updated immediately if there is a change.
D.
Administrative data should be updated every other year during a review process.
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