Physiology 001 - Introduction to Human Physiology » Winter 2021 » Lecture Exam 3 (A)
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Question #1
In the clotting cascade, thrombin feeds back and further stimulates its own activation, which is a positive feedback mechanism.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #2
Which of the following statements regarding blood clotting is TRUE?
A.
Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide.
B.
Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.
C.
A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen.
D.
Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia.
E.
Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting.
Question #3
An electrocardiogram would be definitive for diagnosing diseases involving the valves of the heart.
A.
FALSE
B.
TRUE
Question #4
Increasing the mean arterial pressure or the pulse pressure in the carotid artery will cause decreased firing of action potentials in the afferent neurons associated with the baroreceptors.
A.
FALSE
B.
TRUE
Question #5
What is hemostasis?
A.
A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired
B.
The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment
C.
A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity
D.
The set point for normal arterial blood pressure
E.
The prevention or stoppage of blood loss
Question #6
Blood flow through most organs in the systemic circuit is regulated primarily by increasing or decreasing the __________ activity to arteriolar smooth muscles in the organ. Another form of regulation, called __________, depends upon the metabolic activity of the organ. Increased activity leads to increased interstitial fluid metabolites, which cause __________ of the arterioles. The former is a type of __________ regulation of blood flow; the latter is an example of __________ regulation.
A.
sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic
B.
sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic
C.
parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic
D.
sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic
E.
parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic
Question #7
Mr. Saunders has been diagnosed with bundle branch block following an infection in his heart. This means that action potential propagation through the bundle of His is compromised. Which of the following would be TRUE?,,
A.
There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles.
B.
The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria.
C.
The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony.
D.
The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction.
E.
The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches.
Question #8
The left ventricle has a thicker wall than the right ventricle because the left ventricle has to pump blood against a higher pressure.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #9
The smooth muscle in arteriole walls can be stimulated either to contract or to relax, thereby either decreasing or increasing the amount of blood flowing through arteriolar beds.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #10
In the systemic circuit, which of these best describes active hyperemia?
A.
Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues
B.
Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction
C.
Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation
D.
Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction
E.
Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation
Question #11
Consider the equation F = ΔP/R. It describes the flow (F) of fluid in a tube in which there is a pressure difference (ΔP) between the two ends and a resistance (R) to flow. Based on this equation, which is a correct conclusion?
A.
If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase.
B.
The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.
C.
The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference.
D.
The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube.
E.
The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased.
Question #12
Strong vasoconstriction of arterioles will probably result in greater filtration of fluid from the plasma of capillary beds downstream.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #13
During the cardiac cycle of an individual at rest
A.
the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole.
B.
the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.
C.
the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle.
D.
the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side.
E.
the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.
Question #14
Under normal circumstances, which of the following would result froman increase in transpulmonary pressure?
A.
Pneumothorax
B.
Emphysema
C.
Exhalation/expiration
D.
A collapsed lung
E.
Inhalation/inspiration
Question #15
A decrease in arterial P O2 stimulates increased ventilation by causing increased firing of action potentials in the afferent neurons from the carotid and aortic body chemoreceptors.
A.
FALSE
B.
TRUE
Question #16
The diameter of the airways in normal lungs is generally great enough that little resistance is offered to airflow.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #17
Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary surfactant is TRUE?
A.
It is secreted by type I alveolar cells.
B.
It is secreted into the intrapleural space.
C.
It can only interact with other lipid molecules
D.
It increases airway resistance.
E.
It increases the compliance of the lungs.
Question #18
At sea level, atmospheric PO2 is about 760 mmHg.
A.
FALSE
B.
TRUE
Question #19
An individual with emphysema might experience which of the following?,,
A.
Increased respiratory rate
B.
Decreased arterial P O2
C.
Increased arterial P O2
D.
Decreased arterial PC O2
E.
Increased arterial P CO2
Question #20
Increased plasma concentration of lactic acid stimulates increased ventilation primarily by means of central chemoreceptors.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #21
Which of the following are chemoreceptors?
A.
Hair cells in the cochlea
B.
Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch
C.
Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies
D.
Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex
Question #22
Which of the following drugs, administered as an aerosol spray, would be most likely to help a patient during an asthmatic attack?
A.
Histamine
B.
A β2-adrenergic agonist
C.
A muscarinic agonist
D.
Pulmonary surfactant
E.
A β2-adrenergic antagonist
Question #23
Maria is a patient in the ward who was recently in a motor vehicle accident. Her injuries are causing her a lot of pain, and as a consequence to the morphine she’s been given, her respiratory rate is quite low. Which of the following is likely to be TRUE?
A.
The pH of her blood has increased.
B.
The alveolar O 2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels.
C.
The level of H + ions in her blood has increased.
D.
The level of O 2 in her blood has increased.
E.
The alveolar CO 2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels.
Question #24
Which of these results from hyperventilation?,,
A.
The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions
B.
Decreased alveolar P CO2
C.
An increase in alveolar P CO2
D.
A decrease in alveolar P O2
E.
Increased alveolar P O2
Question #25
Doubling the frequency of breathing will cause a greater increase in alveolar ventilation than will doubling the depth of inspiration.
A.
FALSE
B.
TRUE
Question #26
A chemical that causes binding of a phagocyte to a microbe is called a chemotaxin.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #27
Chemotaxis
A.
is important only for adaptive immune responses.
B.
is important only for innate immune responses.
C.
refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells.
D.
refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation.
E.
refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages.
Question #28
Which of these correctly describes a systemic response to infection?
A.
The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal.
B.
There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal.
C.
The body's set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal.
D.
Appetite generally increases compared to normal.
E.
Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased.
Question #29
Adaptive immune responses differ from innate immune responses in that the former are mediated by lymphocytes.
A.
FALSE
B.
TRUE
Question #30
Which two cell types are primarily responsible for graft rejection?
A.
B cells and plasma cells
B.
Marcrophages and natural killer cells
C.
B cells and helper T cells
D.
Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells
E.
Natural killer cells and B cells
Question #31
Which of the following cell types binds to antigens on plasma membranes of target cells and directly destroys the cells?
A.
B cells
B.
Helper T cells (CD4 cells)
C.
Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells)
D.
Neutrophils
E.
NK cells
Question #32
Which is NOT true about AIDS?
A.
Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi's sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency.
B.
The HIVvirus preferentially enters and disables B cells.
C.
It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant.
D.
It is caused by a retrovirus.
E.
It is caused by a virus that contains RNA.
Question #33
One therapy option for an individual with hepatitis C virus is a drug that mimics the action of interferons. Which would be NOT true in a patient taking this drug?
A.
Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins.
B.
The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections.
C.
The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections.
D.
The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors.
E.
None of these are true.
Question #34
Which type of allergy/hypersensitivity occurs independent of antibodies?
A.
Immune-complex hypersensitivity
B.
Immediate hypersensitivity
C.
Delayed hypersensitivity
D.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
Question #35
Which of the following statements regarding blood-type incompatibilities between a mother and her fetus is TRUE?
A.
A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood.
B.
The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive.
C.
The risk to anRh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she haspreviously carried anRh-negative fetus.
D.
An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive.
E.
An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative.
Question #36
Which of the following statements regarding protein digestion and absorption is TRUE?
A.
Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can beabsorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells.
B.
After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver.
C.
Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins.
D.
Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine.
E.
The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form.
Question #37
The presence of acid and peptides in the stomach stimulates the gastric phase of gastrointestinal control.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #38
Neural regulation of digestive processes is accomplished exclusively by the enteric nervous system of the gastrointestinal tract.
A.
FALSE
B.
TRUE
Question #39
Which of these are secretions of the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa?
A.
HCl and pepsinogen
B.
HCl and intrinsic factor
C.
pepsinogen and intrinsic factor
D.
HCl and gastrin
E.
gastrin and intrinsic factor
Question #40
Which of the following would be most likely to cause metabolic alkalosis?
A.
Severe diarrhea
B.
Strenuous exercise
C.
Hyperventilation
D.
Hypoventilation
E.
Severe vomiting
Question #41
You’re going hiking and want to pack emergency food in case you get lost or the hike takes longer than you anticipate. Your goal is to pack a food that will have the biggest increase on your blood glucose level to be able to supply your hiking muscles with glucose for cellular respiration. Which of the following foods will lead to the biggest and most immediate increase in blood glucose?
A.
All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level
B.
A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese
C.
A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery
D.
A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick
E.
A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato
Question #42
Which of the following statements regarding neural regulation of gastrointestinal function is TRUE?
A.
There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system.
B.
If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place.
C.
Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall's smooth muscle.
D.
The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa.
E.
Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves.
Question #43
Voluntary control of defecation requires learning to keep the external anal sphincter smooth muscle contracted.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #44
The same hormone that stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion.
A.
FALSE
B.
TRUE
Question #45
The breakdown products of dietary triglycerides are resynthesized into triglycerides by intestinal cells and pass from these cells into lacteals.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #46
Bile secreted by the liver contains the major enzymes for digesting fats.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #47
Amino acids are mainly absorbed across the epithelial wall in the stomach.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
Question #48
Elizabeth suffers from a gastric ulcer. She experiences pain during the times when acid is released into the stomach. Which of the following times is Elizabeth likely to experience the most pain?
A.
During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries.
B.
Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time.
C.
During periods of hunger.
D.
During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak.
E.
During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel.
Question #49
A bacterium that has been associated with ulcers is
A.
Helicobacter pylori.
B.
Clostridium difficile.
C.
Staphylococcus aureus.
D.
Eschericia coli.
E.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Question #50
The primary kind of motility in the small intestine during digestion of a meal is
A.
mass movement.
B.
segmentation.
C.
receptive relaxation.
D.
migrating motility complex.
E.
peristalsis.
Question #51
Which is TRUE regarding the regulation of heart rate?
A.
A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart.
B.
The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate.
C.
Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.
D.
The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.
E.
Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.
Question #52
A beta-adrenergic receptor blocker will work to both lower the heart rate and the force of ventricular contraction.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
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