A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen.

B.   Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting.

C.   Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia.

D.   Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.

E.   Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired

B.   The prevention or stoppage of blood loss

C.   The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment

D.   The set point for normal arterial blood pressure

E.   A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity

A.   sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic

B.   sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic

C.   parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic

D.   sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

E.   parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

A.   The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria.

B.   The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches.

C.   The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction.

D.   There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles.

E.   The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation

B.   Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction

C.   Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation

D.   Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction

E.   Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues

A.   The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.

B.   If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase.

C.   The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased.

D.   The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference.

E.   The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole.

B.   the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side.

C.   the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle.

D.   the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.

E.   the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.

A.   Inhalation/inspiration

B.   Exhalation/expiration

C.   Emphysema

D.   Pneumothorax

E.   A collapsed lung

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   It is secreted by type I alveolar cells.

B.   It increases airway resistance.

C.   It can only interact with other lipid molecules

D.   It is secreted into the intrapleural space.

E.   It increases the compliance of the lungs.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Decreased arterial PC O2

B.   Increased respiratory rate

C.   Increased arterial P CO2

D.   Increased arterial P O2

E.   Decreased arterial P O2

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Hair cells in the cochlea

B.   Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex

C.   Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch

D.   Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies

A.   A β2-adrenergic antagonist

B.   Histamine

C.   A muscarinic agonist

D.   Pulmonary surfactant

E.   A β2-adrenergic agonist

A.   The level of O 2 in her blood has increased.

B.   The alveolar O 2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels.

C.   The pH of her blood has increased.

D.   The alveolar CO 2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels.

E.   The level of H + ions in her blood has increased.

A.   A decrease in alveolar P O2

B.   An increase in alveolar P CO2

C.   Increased alveolar P O2

D.   Decreased alveolar P CO2

E.   The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages.

B.   is important only for adaptive immune responses.

C.   refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells.

D.   is important only for innate immune responses.

E.   refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation.

A.   The body's set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal.

B.   The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal.

C.   Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased.

D.   There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal.

E.   Appetite generally increases compared to normal.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   B cells and plasma cells

B.   B cells and helper T cells

C.   Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells

D.   Marcrophages and natural killer cells

E.   Natural killer cells and B cells

A.   Neutrophils

B.   Helper T cells (CD4 cells)

C.   NK cells

D.   Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells)

E.   B cells

A.   It is caused by a retrovirus.

B.   Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi's sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency.

C.   The HIVvirus preferentially enters and disables B cells.

D.   It is caused by a virus that contains RNA.

E.   It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant.

A.   The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections.

B.   The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors.

C.   Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins.

D.   The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections.

E.   None of these are true.

A.   Immune-complex hypersensitivity

B.   Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

C.   Delayed hypersensitivity

D.   Immediate hypersensitivity

A.   A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood.

B.   The risk to anRh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she haspreviously carried anRh-negative fetus.

C.   An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive.

D.   An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative.

E.   The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive.

A.   Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins.

B.   Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine.

C.   The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form.

D.   Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can beabsorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells.

E.   After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   HCl and intrinsic factor

B.   gastrin and intrinsic factor

C.   pepsinogen and intrinsic factor

D.   HCl and gastrin

E.   HCl and pepsinogen

A.   Hyperventilation

B.   Strenuous exercise

C.   Hypoventilation

D.   Severe vomiting

E.   Severe diarrhea

A.   A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick

B.   All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level

C.   A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese

D.   A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato

E.   A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery

A.   Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves.

B.   There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system.

C.   The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa.

D.   Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall's smooth muscle.

E.   If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   During periods of hunger.

B.   During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries.

C.   During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak.

D.   Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time.

E.   During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel.

A.   Clostridium difficile.

B.   Helicobacter pylori.

C.   Staphylococcus aureus.

D.   Eschericia coli.

E.   Streptococcus pyogenes.

A.   migrating motility complex.

B.   segmentation.

C.   receptive relaxation.

D.   peristalsis.

E.   mass movement.

A.   The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate.

B.   Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

C.   A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart.

D.   Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.

E.   The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE