A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen.

B.   Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.

C.   Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia.

D.   Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide.

E.   Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   The set point for normal arterial blood pressure

B.   The prevention or stoppage of blood loss

C.   A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity

D.   The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment

E.   A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired

A.   parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

B.   parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic

C.   sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

D.   sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic

E.   sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic

A.   The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches.

B.   The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria.

C.   The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony.

D.   There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles.

E.   The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation

B.   Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction

C.   Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction

D.   Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues

E.   Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation

A.   The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased.

B.   If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase.

C.   The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference.

D.   The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube.

E.   The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side.

B.   the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole.

C.   the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.

D.   the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle.

E.   the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.

A.   Pneumothorax

B.   A collapsed lung

C.   Exhalation/expiration

D.   Inhalation/inspiration

E.   Emphysema

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   It increases the compliance of the lungs.

B.   It increases airway resistance.

C.   It can only interact with other lipid molecules

D.   It is secreted by type I alveolar cells.

E.   It is secreted into the intrapleural space.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Increased arterial P CO2

B.   Increased arterial P O2

C.   Increased respiratory rate

D.   Decreased arterial P O2

E.   Decreased arterial PC O2

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch

B.   Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex

C.   Hair cells in the cochlea

D.   Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies

A.   Pulmonary surfactant

B.   A β2-adrenergic agonist

C.   Histamine

D.   A β2-adrenergic antagonist

E.   A muscarinic agonist

A.   The level of H + ions in her blood has increased.

B.   The level of O 2 in her blood has increased.

C.   The alveolar O 2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels.

D.   The pH of her blood has increased.

E.   The alveolar CO 2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels.

A.   A decrease in alveolar P O2

B.   The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions

C.   Decreased alveolar P CO2

D.   Increased alveolar P O2

E.   An increase in alveolar P CO2

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation.

B.   is important only for adaptive immune responses.

C.   refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages.

D.   is important only for innate immune responses.

E.   refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells.

A.   Appetite generally increases compared to normal.

B.   The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal.

C.   There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal.

D.   Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased.

E.   The body's set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Marcrophages and natural killer cells

B.   Natural killer cells and B cells

C.   B cells and plasma cells

D.   B cells and helper T cells

E.   Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells

A.   NK cells

B.   Neutrophils

C.   B cells

D.   Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells)

E.   Helper T cells (CD4 cells)

A.   Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi's sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency.

B.   It is caused by a retrovirus.

C.   It is caused by a virus that contains RNA.

D.   The HIVvirus preferentially enters and disables B cells.

E.   It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant.

A.   The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors.

B.   The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections.

C.   Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins.

D.   The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections.

E.   None of these are true.

A.   Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

B.   Delayed hypersensitivity

C.   Immune-complex hypersensitivity

D.   Immediate hypersensitivity

A.   An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive.

B.   An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative.

C.   The risk to anRh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she haspreviously carried anRh-negative fetus.

D.   The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive.

E.   A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood.

A.   The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form.

B.   After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver.

C.   Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins.

D.   Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine.

E.   Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can beabsorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   HCl and intrinsic factor

B.   HCl and pepsinogen

C.   HCl and gastrin

D.   gastrin and intrinsic factor

E.   pepsinogen and intrinsic factor

A.   Hyperventilation

B.   Severe diarrhea

C.   Strenuous exercise

D.   Hypoventilation

E.   Severe vomiting

A.   A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery

B.   A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato

C.   A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese

D.   A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick

E.   All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level

A.   If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place.

B.   Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall's smooth muscle.

C.   The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa.

D.   Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves.

E.   There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time.

B.   During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel.

C.   During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak.

D.   During periods of hunger.

E.   During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries.

A.   Clostridium difficile.

B.   Streptococcus pyogenes.

C.   Helicobacter pylori.

D.   Eschericia coli.

E.   Staphylococcus aureus.

A.   mass movement.

B.   migrating motility complex.

C.   segmentation.

D.   receptive relaxation.

E.   peristalsis.

A.   A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart.

B.   The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

C.   The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate.

D.   Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.

E.   Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE