A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia.

B.   A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen.

C.   Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting.

D.   Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide.

E.   Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   The set point for normal arterial blood pressure

B.   The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment

C.   A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity

D.   A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired

E.   The prevention or stoppage of blood loss

A.   sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic

B.   parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

C.   sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic

D.   parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic

E.   sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

A.   There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles.

B.   The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria.

C.   The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches.

D.   The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction.

E.   The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues

B.   Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction

C.   Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation

D.   Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction

E.   Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation

A.   The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube.

B.   The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference.

C.   If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase.

D.   The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased.

E.   The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle.

B.   the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side.

C.   the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.

D.   the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole.

E.   the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.

A.   Inhalation/inspiration

B.   Pneumothorax

C.   A collapsed lung

D.   Exhalation/expiration

E.   Emphysema

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   It is secreted into the intrapleural space.

B.   It can only interact with other lipid molecules

C.   It increases airway resistance.

D.   It increases the compliance of the lungs.

E.   It is secreted by type I alveolar cells.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Decreased arterial PC O2

B.   Increased arterial P CO2

C.   Increased arterial P O2

D.   Decreased arterial P O2

E.   Increased respiratory rate

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex

B.   Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies

C.   Hair cells in the cochlea

D.   Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch

A.   Pulmonary surfactant

B.   A muscarinic agonist

C.   A β2-adrenergic agonist

D.   A β2-adrenergic antagonist

E.   Histamine

A.   The level of H + ions in her blood has increased.

B.   The level of O 2 in her blood has increased.

C.   The pH of her blood has increased.

D.   The alveolar O 2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels.

E.   The alveolar CO 2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels.

A.   An increase in alveolar P CO2

B.   A decrease in alveolar P O2

C.   Increased alveolar P O2

D.   The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions

E.   Decreased alveolar P CO2

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   is important only for adaptive immune responses.

B.   refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages.

C.   is important only for innate immune responses.

D.   refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells.

E.   refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation.

A.   Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased.

B.   Appetite generally increases compared to normal.

C.   The body's set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal.

D.   There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal.

E.   The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Natural killer cells and B cells

B.   Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells

C.   B cells and helper T cells

D.   B cells and plasma cells

E.   Marcrophages and natural killer cells

A.   Helper T cells (CD4 cells)

B.   B cells

C.   Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells)

D.   Neutrophils

E.   NK cells

A.   It is caused by a virus that contains RNA.

B.   It is caused by a retrovirus.

C.   The HIVvirus preferentially enters and disables B cells.

D.   It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant.

E.   Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi's sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency.

A.   None of these are true.

B.   The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections.

C.   Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins.

D.   The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors.

E.   The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections.

A.   Immune-complex hypersensitivity

B.   Immediate hypersensitivity

C.   Delayed hypersensitivity

D.   Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

A.   An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive.

B.   An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative.

C.   The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive.

D.   A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood.

E.   The risk to anRh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she haspreviously carried anRh-negative fetus.

A.   After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver.

B.   Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can beabsorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells.

C.   The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form.

D.   Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins.

E.   Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   HCl and gastrin

B.   gastrin and intrinsic factor

C.   pepsinogen and intrinsic factor

D.   HCl and pepsinogen

E.   HCl and intrinsic factor

A.   Strenuous exercise

B.   Hyperventilation

C.   Severe vomiting

D.   Hypoventilation

E.   Severe diarrhea

A.   A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato

B.   All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level

C.   A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese

D.   A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick

E.   A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery

A.   If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place.

B.   Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall's smooth muscle.

C.   There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system.

D.   Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves.

E.   The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel.

B.   During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak.

C.   During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries.

D.   Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time.

E.   During periods of hunger.

A.   Streptococcus pyogenes.

B.   Staphylococcus aureus.

C.   Clostridium difficile.

D.   Helicobacter pylori.

E.   Eschericia coli.

A.   receptive relaxation.

B.   migrating motility complex.

C.   mass movement.

D.   peristalsis.

E.   segmentation.

A.   The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate.

B.   The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

C.   Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

D.   Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.

E.   A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE