A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia.

B.   Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.

C.   A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen.

D.   Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide.

E.   Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment

B.   A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired

C.   A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity

D.   The prevention or stoppage of blood loss

E.   The set point for normal arterial blood pressure

A.   sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

B.   parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic

C.   parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

D.   sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic

E.   sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic

A.   The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction.

B.   The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria.

C.   The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches.

D.   There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles.

E.   The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues

B.   Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction

C.   Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction

D.   Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation

E.   Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation

A.   The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference.

B.   If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase.

C.   The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased.

D.   The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.

E.   The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.

B.   the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.

C.   the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side.

D.   the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole.

E.   the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle.

A.   Emphysema

B.   Exhalation/expiration

C.   Inhalation/inspiration

D.   Pneumothorax

E.   A collapsed lung

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   It is secreted by type I alveolar cells.

B.   It increases the compliance of the lungs.

C.   It is secreted into the intrapleural space.

D.   It increases airway resistance.

E.   It can only interact with other lipid molecules

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Increased arterial P CO2

B.   Decreased arterial P O2

C.   Increased respiratory rate

D.   Decreased arterial PC O2

E.   Increased arterial P O2

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch

B.   Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex

C.   Hair cells in the cochlea

D.   Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies

A.   Histamine

B.   A β2-adrenergic agonist

C.   A β2-adrenergic antagonist

D.   Pulmonary surfactant

E.   A muscarinic agonist

A.   The level of O 2 in her blood has increased.

B.   The pH of her blood has increased.

C.   The alveolar CO 2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels.

D.   The level of H + ions in her blood has increased.

E.   The alveolar O 2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels.

A.   An increase in alveolar P CO2

B.   The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions

C.   Increased alveolar P O2

D.   Decreased alveolar P CO2

E.   A decrease in alveolar P O2

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   is important only for adaptive immune responses.

B.   is important only for innate immune responses.

C.   refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages.

D.   refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells.

E.   refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation.

A.   Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased.

B.   The body's set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal.

C.   Appetite generally increases compared to normal.

D.   There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal.

E.   The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Marcrophages and natural killer cells

B.   B cells and helper T cells

C.   B cells and plasma cells

D.   Natural killer cells and B cells

E.   Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells

A.   Neutrophils

B.   B cells

C.   Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells)

D.   Helper T cells (CD4 cells)

E.   NK cells

A.   It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant.

B.   It is caused by a retrovirus.

C.   The HIVvirus preferentially enters and disables B cells.

D.   Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi's sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency.

E.   It is caused by a virus that contains RNA.

A.   The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections.

B.   The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors.

C.   None of these are true.

D.   The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections.

E.   Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins.

A.   Immune-complex hypersensitivity

B.   Immediate hypersensitivity

C.   Delayed hypersensitivity

D.   Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

A.   The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive.

B.   The risk to anRh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she haspreviously carried anRh-negative fetus.

C.   An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative.

D.   A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood.

E.   An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive.

A.   Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can beabsorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells.

B.   The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form.

C.   Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine.

D.   Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins.

E.   After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   pepsinogen and intrinsic factor

B.   HCl and gastrin

C.   gastrin and intrinsic factor

D.   HCl and intrinsic factor

E.   HCl and pepsinogen

A.   Hypoventilation

B.   Strenuous exercise

C.   Severe vomiting

D.   Severe diarrhea

E.   Hyperventilation

A.   A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato

B.   A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese

C.   All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level

D.   A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery

E.   A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick

A.   If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place.

B.   There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system.

C.   Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves.

D.   The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa.

E.   Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall's smooth muscle.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak.

B.   Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time.

C.   During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel.

D.   During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries.

E.   During periods of hunger.

A.   Helicobacter pylori.

B.   Clostridium difficile.

C.   Streptococcus pyogenes.

D.   Eschericia coli.

E.   Staphylococcus aureus.

A.   mass movement.

B.   segmentation.

C.   peristalsis.

D.   receptive relaxation.

E.   migrating motility complex.

A.   The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate.

B.   The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

C.   A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart.

D.   Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.

E.   Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE