A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia.

B.   Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting.

C.   Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.

D.   Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide.

E.   A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment

B.   A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired

C.   The prevention or stoppage of blood loss

D.   The set point for normal arterial blood pressure

E.   A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity

A.   parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

B.   parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic

C.   sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic

D.   sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic

E.   sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

A.   The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria.

B.   The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction.

C.   There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles.

D.   The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches.

E.   The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction

B.   Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues

C.   Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation

D.   Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction

E.   Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation

A.   The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference.

B.   If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase.

C.   The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.

D.   The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube.

E.   The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle.

B.   the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.

C.   the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole.

D.   the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.

E.   the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side.

A.   Inhalation/inspiration

B.   Emphysema

C.   A collapsed lung

D.   Exhalation/expiration

E.   Pneumothorax

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   It can only interact with other lipid molecules

B.   It increases the compliance of the lungs.

C.   It is secreted by type I alveolar cells.

D.   It is secreted into the intrapleural space.

E.   It increases airway resistance.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Decreased arterial P O2

B.   Decreased arterial PC O2

C.   Increased arterial P CO2

D.   Increased arterial P O2

E.   Increased respiratory rate

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies

B.   Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch

C.   Hair cells in the cochlea

D.   Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex

A.   A muscarinic agonist

B.   A β2-adrenergic antagonist

C.   Histamine

D.   Pulmonary surfactant

E.   A β2-adrenergic agonist

A.   The alveolar O 2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels.

B.   The level of O 2 in her blood has increased.

C.   The alveolar CO 2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels.

D.   The level of H + ions in her blood has increased.

E.   The pH of her blood has increased.

A.   An increase in alveolar P CO2

B.   Increased alveolar P O2

C.   A decrease in alveolar P O2

D.   The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions

E.   Decreased alveolar P CO2

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells.

B.   refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation.

C.   refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages.

D.   is important only for innate immune responses.

E.   is important only for adaptive immune responses.

A.   The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal.

B.   Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased.

C.   There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal.

D.   The body's set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal.

E.   Appetite generally increases compared to normal.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   Natural killer cells and B cells

B.   B cells and plasma cells

C.   B cells and helper T cells

D.   Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells

E.   Marcrophages and natural killer cells

A.   Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells)

B.   Neutrophils

C.   Helper T cells (CD4 cells)

D.   NK cells

E.   B cells

A.   It is caused by a virus that contains RNA.

B.   The HIVvirus preferentially enters and disables B cells.

C.   It is caused by a retrovirus.

D.   It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant.

E.   Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi's sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency.

A.   Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins.

B.   The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors.

C.   The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections.

D.   The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections.

E.   None of these are true.

A.   Delayed hypersensitivity

B.   Immune-complex hypersensitivity

C.   Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

D.   Immediate hypersensitivity

A.   The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive.

B.   An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive.

C.   An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative.

D.   The risk to anRh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she haspreviously carried anRh-negative fetus.

E.   A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood.

A.   Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine.

B.   The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form.

C.   Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins.

D.   After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver.

E.   Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can beabsorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells.

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   HCl and pepsinogen

B.   gastrin and intrinsic factor

C.   pepsinogen and intrinsic factor

D.   HCl and gastrin

E.   HCl and intrinsic factor

A.   Hypoventilation

B.   Hyperventilation

C.   Severe diarrhea

D.   Strenuous exercise

E.   Severe vomiting

A.   A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese

B.   A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick

C.   A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery

D.   All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level

E.   A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato

A.   If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place.

B.   There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system.

C.   The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa.

D.   Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall's smooth muscle.

E.   Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   FALSE

B.   TRUE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE

A.   During periods of hunger.

B.   During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak.

C.   During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries.

D.   Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time.

E.   During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel.

A.   Staphylococcus aureus.

B.   Helicobacter pylori.

C.   Clostridium difficile.

D.   Streptococcus pyogenes.

E.   Eschericia coli.

A.   segmentation.

B.   mass movement.

C.   receptive relaxation.

D.   peristalsis.

E.   migrating motility complex.

A.   The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

B.   Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

C.   A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart.

D.   The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate.

E.   Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.

A.   TRUE

B.   FALSE