Physiology 001 - Introduction to Human Physiology » Winter 2021 » Lecture Final Exam

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Question #1
Which of the following most accurately describes the actions of aldosterone?
A.   Aldosterone increases Na + secretion and K + reabsorption in the cortical collecting ducts.
B.   Aldosterone increases Na + reabsorption and K + secretion in the proximal tubule.
C.   Aldosterone increases Na + reabsorption and K + secretion in the cortical collecting ducts.
D.   Aldosterone decreases Na + reabsorption and K + secretion in the cortical collecting ducts.
E.   Aldosterone increases Na + secretion and K + reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Question #2
Which of the following statements concerning the process of glomerular filtration is correct?
A.   The hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's space opposes filtration.
B.   All of the plasma that enters the glomerular capillariesis filtered.
C.   The hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries opposes filtration.
D.   The glomerular filtration rate is limited by a transport maximum.
E.   The osmotic force due to plasma proteins favors filtration.
Question #3
In a person with respiratory acidosis, HCO 3 - is actively secreted into the urine by the tubular cells.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #4
In the condition diabetes mellitus, why does glucose appear in the urine?
A.   The rate of tubular secretion of glucose becomes greater than the sum of glucose filtration and reabsorption.
B.   The filtered load of glucose becomes greater than the tubular maximum for its reabsorption.
C.   Without the hormone insulin, glucose cannot enter proximal tubule epithelial cells.
D.   Without insulin, the glomerular filtration barrier becomes extremely leaky to glucose, which is not normally filterable.
E.   The plasma concentration of glucose becomes so high that it diffuses from peritubular capillaries into the proximal tubule, down its concentration gradient.
Question #5
The anatomic arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons in the kidneys is such that the glomerulus, proximal tubule, and distal convoluted tubule are in the renal cortex, while the loop of Henle and collecting ducts lie mainly in the renal medulla.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #6
Which correctly describes a basic renal process?
A.   Substances are reabsorbed from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular lumen.
B.   Fluid is filtered from Bowman's capsule into the glomerulus.
C.   Substances are actively secreted from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule.
D.   Substances are secreted from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries.
E.   Fluid moves by bulk flow from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's space.
Question #7
The countercurrent mechanism of the kidney enablesthe formation of hypertonic urine.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #8
Most of the reabsorption of filtered calcium is unregulated and occurs in the__________, but an additional amount can be reabsorbed in the __________, depending on the plasmaconcentration of parathyroid hormone.
A.   proximal convoluted tubule; distal convoluted tubule
B.   distal convoluted tubule; medullary collecting ducts
C.   distal convoluted tubule; renal corpuscle
D.   proximal convoluted tubule; descending loop of Henle
E.   distal convoluted tubule; proximal convoluted tubule
Question #9
A consequence of lack of vasopressin is excretion of sugar in the urine, which occurs in the condition diabetes mellitus.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #10
Tom is on a health kick and wants to make sure that he is always in balance in terms of total body water. Which of the following is important for him to keep in mind?
A.   The amount ingested plus that metabolically produced must equal the amount of water in the urine.
B.   He must ingest more water than is lost in the urine.
C.   He must ingest less water than is lost in the urine.
D.   He must ingest more water than is lost by all output pathways combined.
E.   The water filtered into Bowman's capsule must be 100% reabsorbed.
Question #11
Which stimulates vasopressin secretion?
A.   Increased plasma volume
B.   Increased pressure in afferent arterioles
C.   Ingestion of alcohol
D.   Increased plasma osmolarity
E.   Decreased aldosterone secretion
Question #12
Which of the following statements regarding Ca2+ homeostasis is TRUE?
A.   Parathyroid hormone directly stimulates Ca 2+ reabsorption by the kidneys.
B.   Vitamin D decreases the renal tubular reabsorption of Ca 2+.
C.   Parathyroid hormone directly stimulates Ca 2+ absorption from the GI tract.
D.   In the absence of parathyroid hormone, plasma Ca 2+ levels would be abnormally low, resulting in the hyperpolarization of nerve and muscle membranes.
E.   When plasma Ca 2+ increases above normal, the secretion of parathyroid hormone increases.
Question #13
Most of the H + excreted in the urine is bound to bicarbonate ion.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #14
The filtered load of water in an average personis approximately180 L/day.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #15
How does the renal countercurrent multiplier mechanism allow the creation of a concentrated urine?
A.   By concentrating NaCl in the renal medullary interstitial fluid, it allows water to be reabsorbed from the collecting ducts when vasopressin is present.
B.   By pumping NaCl and urea into the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, it raises the solute load, which turns into a concentrated urine once water is extracted from the collecting duct.
C.   It transports urea from the medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct, which directly increases the osmolarity of the urine.
D.   It transports NaCl from the medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct, which directly increases the osmolarity of the urine.
E.   When anti-diuretic hormone is present, it stimulates the pumping of NaCl from the medullary interstitial fluid and water follows, concentrating the urine.
Question #16
Most of the body's water is located inside cells, whereas most of the body's Na + is in the interstitial fluid and plasma.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #17
The amount of a substance that is excreted in the urine is equal to the amount that is __________ plus the amount that is __________ minus the amount that is __________.
A.   reabsorbed; secreted; filtered
B.   secreted; reabsorbed; filtered
C.   reabsorbed; filtered; secreted
D.   filtered; reabsorbed; secreted
E.   filtered; secreted; reabsorbed
Question #18
When blood Ca 2+ levels fall below normal, in what ways do the kidneys help restore them toward normal?
A.   By increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, increasing tubular phosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubularCa2+ reabsorption
B.   By increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, decreasing tubular phosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubular Ca2+ reabsorption
C.   By decreasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, increasing tubularphosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubular Ca2+ reabsorption
D.   By increasing renal secretion of parathyroid hormone and increasing bone resorption
E.   Increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation and increasing secretion of parathyroid hormone
Question #19
At the bend of the loop of Henle, the osmolarity of the tubular fluid is more than four times greater than that of the glomerular filtrate when a person is in an antidiuretic state.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #20
Which of the following substances undergoes renal tubular secretion?
A.   H 20
B.   Na +
C.   K +
D.   Ca 2+
Question #21
The total solute concentration in the extracellular fluid is mainly dependent upon the concentration of Na + in the extracellular fluid.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #22
The three basic processes of kidney function are filtration from the glomerulus into Bowman's capsule, secretion from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries, and reabsorption from the capillaries into the tubular lumen.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #23
Regulation of Ca2+ balance, like that of Na+ and K+ balance, is only determined by the kidneys.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #24
A compensation for an episode of severe vomiting is an increased alveolar ventilationrate.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #25
Which correctly describes the composition of the glomerular filtrate?
A.   It is identical to urine, but has a much larger flow rate.
B.   It is similar to plasma, except it does not contain glucose.
C.   It is identical to urine, but has a much smaller flow rate.
D.   It is similar to plasma, except it does not contain plasma proteins.
E.   It is identical to blood plasma, except it lacks red blood cells.
Question #26
The major source of estradiol and progesterone in a non-pregnant woman is the
A.   ovary.
B.   uterus.
C.   adrenal gland.
D.   thyroid gland.
E.   testis.
Question #27
At birth, the ovaries of a female baby contain less thanone million oogonia.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #28
Julia is a new mother who plans to continue lactation for at least a year after her baby is born. At a post-parturition doctor's visit, the doctor says her blood test indicates declining levels of estrogen and progesterone. Will this interfere with her plans to lactate?
A.   No, because the secretion of oxytocin and prolactin are more important for lactation.
B.   No, because even in the absence of hormones, suckling at the breast is sufficient stimulus for milk production.
C.   Yes, high levels of estrogen and progesterone are required for milk ejection.
D.   Yes, high levels of estrogen and progesterone are required for milk production.
Question #29
Many forms of birth control prevent ovulation, although follicular maturation continues to occur. Which of the following would NOT occur in a woman on one of these forms of birth control?
A.   The second meiotic division of the oocyte
B.   Expulsion of the corpus luteum from the ovary
C.   Completion of the first meiotic division of the oocyte
D.   All of these will still occur
E.   Expulsion of the thecal cells onto the ovarian surface
Question #30
Inhibiting the hormone inhibin would stop sperm production and therefore be a possible mechanism for male birth control.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #31
Erection of the penis is a result of vasodilation brought about by a reflex involving nonadrenergic, noncholinergic autonomic neurons.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #32
Blood in the umbilical arteries is well oxygenated, whereas that in the umbilical vein is poorly oxygenated.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #33
Dysmenorrhea refers to pain or discomfort during menses.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #34
Spermatogenesis
A.   is not complete until after an egg is fertilized, which initiates the second meiotic division.
B.   begins with the mitotic division of spermatogonia.
C.   takes place completely within the lumen of the seminiferous tubule.
D.   results in four spermatozoa for every primary spermatocyte.
E.   results in four primary spermatocytes for every spermatogonium.
Question #35
Which of these results from the second meiotic division?
A.   A single daughter cell with 46 chromosomes, and a polar body with no genetic material
B.   Two haploid daughter cells with 23 chromosomes each
C.   Two haploid daughter cells with 46 haploid chromosomes
D.   Two diploid daughter cells with 23 chromosomes each
E.   Two diploid daughter cells with 46 chromosomes each
Question #36
Agatha’s blastocyst implanted on December 5 th. She is trying to figure out which date fertilization most likely occurred on. Which is the most likely date of fertilization?
A.   December 4th
B.   December 5th
C.   December 1st
D.   November 25th
E.   November 5th
Question #37
  
A.   Sertoli cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to dihydrotestosterone.
B.   Production of progesterone by the corpus luteum requires cooperative interaction between two cell types.
C.   Granulosa cells synthesize an androgen which the theca cells convert to estrogen.
D.   Theca cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to estrogen.
E.   Theca cells synthesize an androgen which luteal cells convert to estrogen.
Question #38
Liz is 5 weeks pregnant. During an ultrasound of her ovaries, which of the following can be seen?
A.   One large corpus luteum and no other follicles beyond primordial stage
B.   10–25 mature follicles
C.   Several follicles in primordial, primary, and preantral stages and one corpus luteum
D.   No follicles
E.   No follicles beyond primordial follicle stage
Question #39
The only cells of the testis that can secrete hormonesare the Leydig cells.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #40
During a routine check in the second trimester Erica’s doctor tells her that the placenta is half the size typically seen at this stage of pregnancy. Which of the following is a concern?
A.   Less maternal blood than is typical will be able to flow into fetal circulation
B.   Inadequate exchange of nutrients and waste, thereby limiting fetal growth
C.   None of these will be a concern
D.   Inadequate levels of the hormones of pregnancy
E.   The fetus may become overly large due to extra space in the uterus
Question #41
Which of the following statements regarding male reproductive function is FALSE?
A.   Most of the seminal volume is provided by the secretions of the seminal vesicles and prostate gland.
B.   Sperm entering the epididymis are fully motile.
C.   Sperm formed in the testes enter the epididymis before entering the vas deferens.
D.   The Sertoli cells produce androgen-binding protein.
E.   The seminal fluid is alkaline and rich in nutrients.
Question #42
During meiosis, crossing-over results in the exchange of homologous genes from one of a pair of chromatids to the other with no net change in possibilities for genetic expression.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #43
Jim has just been diagnosed with testicular cancer. The tumor is composed of Sertoli cells and they have begun to produce excessive amounts of inhibin. Which of the following would be TRUE?
A.   Spermatogenesis would be increasedbut testosterone secretion would be normal.
B.   Both FSH and LH secretion would rise above normal levels.
C.   Gonadotropin-releasing hormone levels and spermatogenesis would increase above normal.
D.   Spermatogenesis would be increased because testosterone production would be above normal.
E.   FSH secretion would be selectively inhibited, but LH secretion would be normal.
Question #44
Implantation of a blastocyst
A.   occurs within 24 hours of fertilization of the oocyte.
B.   normally begins around day 21 of the typical menstrual cycle.
C.   requires the presence of high concentrations of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
D.   normally occurs within the oviduct (fallopian tube).
E.   takes place at a time in the typical menstrual cycle when estrogen concentration in the blood is higher than progesterone concentrationin the blood.
Question #45
Luteinizing hormone stimulates testosterone secretion by the Leydig cells of the testes.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #46
The products of the first meiotic division of spermatogenesis are spermatids.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #47
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding oxytocin?
A.   It is secreted by the posterior pituitary.
B.   It facilitates the birth process.
C.   It stimulates synthesis of breast milk.
D.   It is regulated by a positive feedback loop.
E.   It stimulates uterine contractions.
Question #48
Infertility treatments most often involve the injection of aromatases, leading to enhanced numbers of developing early ovarian antral follicles.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #49
With regard to reproduction, which is correct about SRY?
A.   It is a gene found in both males and females.
B.   It is a protein normally coded for by a gene that is present on the X chromosome.
C.   It is a gene thatcodes for testosterone.
D.   It is a protein that causes the degeneration of the Wolffian ducts.
E.   It is a protein that is normally coded for by a gene that is present on the Y chromosome.
Question #50
If you start at the plasma membrane of an oocyte in a mature follicle and move outward, which is the correct order in which you would encounter the three structures listed below?
A.   Zona pellucida; granulosa cells; theca cells
B.   Zona pellucida; theca cells; granulosa cells
C.   Granulosa cells; theca cells; zona pellucida
D.   Theca cells; zona pellucida; granulosa cells
E.   Granulosa cells; zona pellucida; theca cells
Question #51
______________regulation describes regulation of cellular activity by messengers from nearby cells.
A.   Paracrine
B.   Pellucida
Question #52
Which one of the following is the correct sequence for a regulatory reflex arc?
A.   Stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector
B.   Stimulus, effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor
C.   Stimulus, effector, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, receptor
D.   Stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, effector
E.   Effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor, stimulus
Question #53
Neglecting protein differences, which of the following fluids has a virtually identical solute concentration?
A.   The interstitial fluid and the plasma
B.   None of these choices
C.   The interstitial fluid, the extracellular fluid, and the plasma
D.   The extracellular fluid and the plasma
E.   The interstitial fluid and the intracellular fluid
Question #54
Circadian rhythms are biological rhythms with what main characteristic?
A.   They are cyclical, like the rhythmic beating of the heart.
B.   They cease to occur when a person is in a dark environment.
C.   They repeat approximately every 24 hours, like daily spikes in hormone secretion.
D.   They are cyclical, like the 28-day female menstrual cycle.
E.   They are voluntary rhythms, like the time you decide to eat lunch each day.
Question #55
Water is only lost from the body in urine formation.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #56
Which correctly describes the structure of an atom?
A.   The number of protons, neutrons, and electrons never changes.
B.   There are the same number of neutrons and electrons.
C.   There are the same number of protons and electrons.
D.   There are the same number of protons and neutrons.
E.   There are never the same number of neutrons and protons.
Question #57
The atomic number of an element refers to the number of particles in its atomic nucleus.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #58
A solution with a pH of 8 is more acidic than one with a pH of 3.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #59
The special functions of plasma and organelle membranes depend primarily on the specific composition of the phospholipids of those membranes.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #60
Which organelles would you expect to be especially numerous in cells such as muscle cells that have a tremendous demand for energy in the form of ATP?
A.   Endosomes
B.   Mitochondria
C.   Peroxisomes
D.   Lysosomes
E.   Ribosomes
Question #61
The reactions of the Krebs cycle
A.   generate ATP directly by substrate-level phosphorylation.
B.   take place only when no oxygen is present.
C.   take place in the cytosol of human cells.
D.   produce pyruvate and lactate as end products.
E.   are important for the metabolism of carbohydrates but not other molecules.
Question #62
You’re researching a steroid hormone that binds to a receptor inside the cell. Once the receptor binds to its hormone, the receptor moves into the nucleus of the cell. The result of hormone-receptor binding is that new mRNA molecules are made. The receptor is also a
A.   ribosome.
B.   tRNA molecule.
C.   splicosome.
D.   promoter.
E.   transcription factor.
Question #63
Mediated transport is required in order for glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids to pass into cells because none of these substances can diffuse through plasma membranes.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #64
Both primary and secondary active transport require the expenditure of metabolic energy.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #65
Which form of endocytosis is nonspecific, in that it occurs by the formation of an invagination of the plasma membrane, which then fills with interstitial fluid of the immediate area?
A.   Pinocytosis
B.   Hyperosmotic vesicular entrapment
C.   Phagocytosis
D.   Active transport
E.   Hydrosmosis
Question #66
In active transport, the affinity of any given binding site for the molecule to be transported changes as the site goes from facing one side of the membrane to facing the other side.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #67
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A.   Phosphorylation by protein kinases can stimulate or inhibit the activity of effector proteins.
B.   Ca2+ is not a second messenger.
C.   Conversion of ATP to cAMP is a phosphorylation reaction.
D.   Phosphodiesterase converts GMP into cGMP
E.   Phospholipase C converts ATP to cAMP.
Question #68
Amplification of a second-messenger cascade can take place at which level of a signal cascade?
A.   One active effector enzyme can catalyze numerous reactions.
B.   One activated protein kinase can allosterically modulate numerous proteins.
C.   One activated G protein can activate numerous effector enzymes.
D.   One activated receptor can activate numerous G proteins.
E.   One activated G protein can activate numerous effector enzymes. One activated receptor can activate numerous G proteins. One activated protein kinase can allosterically modulate numerous proteins. One active effector enzyme can catalyze numerous reactions.
Question #69
Competition for receptors is strictly a pharmacological phenomenon, since naturally occurring chemical messengers do not compete with each other for the same receptor site.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #70
Which of these is a lipid-soluble messenger?
A.   Cyclic AMP
B.   Glucose
C.   Protein kinase
D.   Thyroid hormone
E.   Sodium
Question #71
Which of the following statements concerning the permeability of a typical neuron membrane at rest is TRUE?
A.   The permeability to Na + is much greater than the permeability to K +.
B.   There is equal permeability to Na + and K +.
C.   Most of the voltage-gated Na + channels are in the closed state.
D.   All of the K+ channels in the membrane are open.
E.   The voltage-gated Na + channels are in the inactivated state.
Question #72
Which of the following statements concerning the properties of action potentials is TRUE?
A.   Action potentials can undergo summation.
B.   A supra-threshold stimulus can stimulate an action potential during the absolute refractory period.
C.   Increasing the size of a stimulus will increase the amplitude of an action potential.
D.   Action potentials generally propagate from the axon terminal toward the axon hillock.
E.   The rate of propagation of an action potential down an axon is independent of stimulus strength.
Question #73
Two stimuli occur on the same neuron more than a minute apart. The second stimulus is more than ten times greater than the first. If we compare the two resulting action potentials, which is TRUE?
A.   The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with higher amplitude.
B.   The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with a longer hyperpolarization at the end.
C.   The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with a longer duration.
D.   The action potentials will have amplitude and duration that are the same.
E.   The amplitude of the two action potentials will be the same.
F.   The amplitude and duration of the second action potential will be greater than the first.
Question #74
The relative refractory period of an axon coincides with the period of
A.   increased K + permeability of the cell.
B.   Increased Na + flux through K + channels.
C.   increased K + flux into the cell.
D.   Na + permeability that is greater than that during the depolarization phase.
E.   activation and inactivation of voltage-dependent Na + channels.
Question #75
Type 2 muscle fibers typically have the fewer mitochondria than type 1.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #76
Which of the following statements regarding skeletal muscle contraction is true?
A.   During every muscle contraction, muscle fibers change length.
B.   During every muscle contraction, tension is developed in the muscle.
C.   In every isotonic muscle contraction, the length of the muscle remains constant.
D.   During a lengthening contraction, the tension exerted by the muscle exceeds the load on the muscle.
E.   Cross-bridges cycle faster during isometric contractions than during isotonic contractions.
Question #77
Which of the following statements regarding skeletal muscle is TRUE?
A.   A given skeletal muscle fiber will contract if excitatory synaptic inputs sufficiently exceed inhibitory synaptic inputs on the motor neuron that innervates that fiber and the motor neuron fires an action potential.
B.   Skeletal muscle fibers have pacemaker activity.
C.   Skeletal muscle contraction is inhibited by inhibitory motor neurons that synapse onto skeletal muscle fibers.
D.   A given skeletal muscle fiber will contract when excitatory nervous stimuli sufficiently exceed inhibitory nervous stimuli at the motor end plate.
E.   Skeletal muscle fibers are joined together by gap junctions.
Question #78
During concentric isotonic contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, which of these occurs?
A.   Sarcomeres lengthen
B.   Thin filaments shorten
C.   I bands shorten
D.   A bands shorten
E.   A bands lengthen
Question #79
Which is TRUE about the muscle fibers found in a muscle spindle?
A.   They are not true muscle fibers because they cannot contract.
B.   When stimulated to fire, they always inhibit flexor muscles.
C.   They function to maintain tension on spindle receptors.
D.   Their contraction is stimulated by alpha motor neurons and inhibited by gamma motor neurons.
E.   They are innervated by alpha motor neurons.
Question #80
Inhibitory input to motor neurons is as important for normal muscle function as excitatory input.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #81
You are designing an experiment to quantify the levels of stress experienced by different individuals. Which of the following tests would reveal insight as to a patient's chronic stress?
A.   Testing plasma levels of follicle-stimulating hormone
B.   Testing plasma levels of parathyroid hormone
C.   Testing plasma levels of growth hormone
D.   Testing plasma levels of cortisol
E.   Testing plasma levels of dopamine
Question #82
Which is NOT true about receptors for steroid hormones?
A.   They undergo allosteric modulation when they bind to the hormone.
B.   They regulate gene transcription.
C.   They may be found in the nucleus.
D.   They are synthesized from cholesterol.
E.   They may beproteins found in the nucleus.
Question #83
Both thyroxine and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)are amine hormones.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #84
In cases where the plasma concentration of an ion or nutrient affects the secretion rate of a hormone, the affected hormone is usuallya regulator of the homeostasis of that ion or nutrient.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #85
Ventricular contractility is the strength of ventricular contraction at any given end-diastolic volume.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #86
Which of the following does NOT describe hypertension? Hypertension
A.   is usually defined as a systolic pressure greater than 140 mmHg and a diastolic pressure greater than 90 mmHg.
B.   may be caused by kidney disease.
C.   can sometimes be treated with drugs that increase excretion of water in the urine.
D.   is usually a result of chronically elevated cardiac output.
E.   refers to a chronic state of elevated blood pressure.
Question #87
What is the term that describes the production of red blood cells?
A.   Erythrocytosis
B.   Hemaglutination
C.   Erythropoiesis
D.   Hemostasis
E.   Erythroblastosis
Question #88
Which of these correctly states differences between atrained athlete and a sedentary individual at rest?
A.   The athlete would have a higher heart rate and larger stroke volume.
B.   The athlete would have a lower heart rate and smaller stroke volume.
C.   The athlete would have a higher heart rate and smaller stroke volume.
D.   There would be no differences when the individuals were at rest.
E.   The athlete would have a lower heart rate and larger stroke volume.
Question #89
Which of these results from hyperventilation?
A.   The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions
B.   Decreased alveolar P CO2
C.   A decrease in alveolar P O2
D.   Increased alveolar P O2
E.   An increase in alveolar P CO2
Question #90
Action potentials in neurons in the inspiratory center of the medulla oblongata result in action potentials in the __________ nerves to the diaphragm, which in turn cause __________ of the muscle, resulting in a/an __________ in the volume of the thoracic cage.
A.   sympathetic; relaxation; increase
B.   sympathetic; contraction; increase
C.   parasympathetic; contraction; decrease
D.   motor; contraction; increase
E.   motor; contraction; decrease
Question #91
Exposure to high altitude is a form of ischemic hypoxia.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #92
If the parietal pleura is cut during surgery, the lung on the side of the cut will expand and the chest wall will be compressed.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #93
Michael has a rare immunological condition that prevents B cell maturation. His doctors first diagnosed him by looking at the levels of secreted immune factors in the blood. Which of the following secreted factors was missing in Michael’s blood?
A.   Colony-stimulating factors
B.   Type 2 interferons
C.   Antibodies
D.   Interleukin 2
E.   Type 1 interferons
Question #94
In a patient taking a hypothetical immunosuppressive drug, all adaptive responses are inhibited. All innate immune responses are still functional, although some are reduced in strength. While taking this drug, which of the following events will still occur in response to infection?
A.   Production of antibodies that bind to antigens
B.   Vasodilation of local blood vessels
C.   Activation of lymphocytes
D.   Antigen interaction with lymphocytes
E.   B-cell differentiation into plasma cells
Question #95
Adaptive immune responses differ from innate immune responses in that the former are mediated by lymphocytes.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #96
After activation of C3 of the complement system, which of these is a role of its component part,C3b?
A.   It stimulates the conversion of monocytes to neutrophils.
B.   It causes vasodilation of local blood vessels.
C.   It acts as an opsonin that is recognized by phagocytes targeting the microbe for destruction.
D.   It acts as an enzyme to convert nitric oxide into hydrogen peroxide.
E.   It acts as a chemotaxin for macrophages.
Question #97
Following diagnosis with pancreatic cancer, Neil had a large portion of his pancreas removed. All of the following will now be found in lower amounts in Neil’s GI tract, except one. Which of the following will NOT be affected?
A.   Bile salts
B.   Amylase
C.   Lipase
D.   Trypsinogen
E.   Bicarbonate ions
Question #98
Which of the following molecules crosses the luminal membrane of intestinal cells by facilitated diffusion?
A.   Galactose
B.   Fructose
C.   Lactose
D.   Maltose
E.   Glucose
Question #99
Which of the following pathways is activated during the cephalic phase of gastrointestinal control?
A.   Secretion of cholecystokinin
B.   Secretion of secretin
C.   Short reflexes between the small intestine and stomach
D.   Parasympathetic nerves to enteric nervous system
E.   Sympathetic nerves to enteric nervous system
Question #100
You’re going hiking and want to pack emergency food in case you get lost or the hike takes longer than you anticipate. Your goal is to pack a food that will have the biggest increase on your blood glucose level to be able to supply your hiking muscles with glucose for cellular respiration. Which of the following foods will lead to the biggest and most immediate increase in blood glucose?
A.   A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery
B.   A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick
C.   A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato
D.   A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese
E.   All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level
Question #101
A man with hypertension takes a diuretic that is not potassium-sparing, and he does not increase his ingestion of potassium. Which of the following side-effects would the drug be most likely to cause?
A.   All of these side effects would occur.
B.   Increased blood volume
C.   Depolarized neuronal cell membranes
D.   Cardiac arrhythmia
E.   Hyperkalemia
Question #102
Compared to the normal plasma osmolarity, the tubular fluid is __________ as it enters Bowman's space, __________ at the beginning of the loop of Henle, __________ at the tip of the loop, and __________ at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule.
A.   isosmotic; hyperosmotic; hyperosmotic; isosmotic
B.   isosmotic; isosmotic; hypoosmotic; hypoosmotic
C.   isosmotic; isosmotic; hypoosmotic; hyperosmotic
D.   isosmotic; isosmotic; hyperosmotic; hypoosmotic
E.   isosmotic; isosmotic; hyperosmotic; isosmotic
Question #103
Increasing the GFR tends to increase the excretion rate of sodium.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #104
If damage to the glomerular capillaries resulted in significantly enlarged filtration slits in the endothelial lining, one consequence might be loss of protein in the urine.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE

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