Physiology 001 - Introduction to Human Physiology » Winter 2021 » Lecture Final Exam

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Question #1
Which of the following most accurately describes the actions of aldosterone?
A.   Aldosterone increases Na + reabsorption and K + secretion in the cortical collecting ducts.
B.   Aldosterone decreases Na + reabsorption and K + secretion in the cortical collecting ducts.
C.   Aldosterone increases Na + secretion and K + reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
D.   Aldosterone increases Na + reabsorption and K + secretion in the proximal tubule.
E.   Aldosterone increases Na + secretion and K + reabsorption in the cortical collecting ducts.
Question #2
Which of the following statements concerning the process of glomerular filtration is correct?
A.   The hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's space opposes filtration.
B.   The hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries opposes filtration.
C.   The glomerular filtration rate is limited by a transport maximum.
D.   All of the plasma that enters the glomerular capillariesis filtered.
E.   The osmotic force due to plasma proteins favors filtration.
Question #3
In a person with respiratory acidosis, HCO 3 - is actively secreted into the urine by the tubular cells.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #4
In the condition diabetes mellitus, why does glucose appear in the urine?
A.   The filtered load of glucose becomes greater than the tubular maximum for its reabsorption.
B.   Without the hormone insulin, glucose cannot enter proximal tubule epithelial cells.
C.   Without insulin, the glomerular filtration barrier becomes extremely leaky to glucose, which is not normally filterable.
D.   The rate of tubular secretion of glucose becomes greater than the sum of glucose filtration and reabsorption.
E.   The plasma concentration of glucose becomes so high that it diffuses from peritubular capillaries into the proximal tubule, down its concentration gradient.
Question #5
The anatomic arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons in the kidneys is such that the glomerulus, proximal tubule, and distal convoluted tubule are in the renal cortex, while the loop of Henle and collecting ducts lie mainly in the renal medulla.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #6
Which correctly describes a basic renal process?
A.   Fluid moves by bulk flow from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's space.
B.   Substances are reabsorbed from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular lumen.
C.   Substances are secreted from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries.
D.   Substances are actively secreted from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule.
E.   Fluid is filtered from Bowman's capsule into the glomerulus.
Question #7
The countercurrent mechanism of the kidney enablesthe formation of hypertonic urine.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #8
Most of the reabsorption of filtered calcium is unregulated and occurs in the__________, but an additional amount can be reabsorbed in the __________, depending on the plasmaconcentration of parathyroid hormone.
A.   distal convoluted tubule; proximal convoluted tubule
B.   proximal convoluted tubule; descending loop of Henle
C.   proximal convoluted tubule; distal convoluted tubule
D.   distal convoluted tubule; medullary collecting ducts
E.   distal convoluted tubule; renal corpuscle
Question #9
A consequence of lack of vasopressin is excretion of sugar in the urine, which occurs in the condition diabetes mellitus.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #10
Tom is on a health kick and wants to make sure that he is always in balance in terms of total body water. Which of the following is important for him to keep in mind?
A.   The water filtered into Bowman's capsule must be 100% reabsorbed.
B.   He must ingest more water than is lost by all output pathways combined.
C.   He must ingest less water than is lost in the urine.
D.   He must ingest more water than is lost in the urine.
E.   The amount ingested plus that metabolically produced must equal the amount of water in the urine.
Question #11
Which stimulates vasopressin secretion?
A.   Increased plasma osmolarity
B.   Decreased aldosterone secretion
C.   Ingestion of alcohol
D.   Increased plasma volume
E.   Increased pressure in afferent arterioles
Question #12
Which of the following statements regarding Ca2+ homeostasis is TRUE?
A.   Vitamin D decreases the renal tubular reabsorption of Ca 2+.
B.   Parathyroid hormone directly stimulates Ca 2+ absorption from the GI tract.
C.   In the absence of parathyroid hormone, plasma Ca 2+ levels would be abnormally low, resulting in the hyperpolarization of nerve and muscle membranes.
D.   When plasma Ca 2+ increases above normal, the secretion of parathyroid hormone increases.
E.   Parathyroid hormone directly stimulates Ca 2+ reabsorption by the kidneys.
Question #13
Most of the H + excreted in the urine is bound to bicarbonate ion.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #14
The filtered load of water in an average personis approximately180 L/day.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #15
How does the renal countercurrent multiplier mechanism allow the creation of a concentrated urine?
A.   By pumping NaCl and urea into the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, it raises the solute load, which turns into a concentrated urine once water is extracted from the collecting duct.
B.   It transports urea from the medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct, which directly increases the osmolarity of the urine.
C.   It transports NaCl from the medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct, which directly increases the osmolarity of the urine.
D.   When anti-diuretic hormone is present, it stimulates the pumping of NaCl from the medullary interstitial fluid and water follows, concentrating the urine.
E.   By concentrating NaCl in the renal medullary interstitial fluid, it allows water to be reabsorbed from the collecting ducts when vasopressin is present.
Question #16
Most of the body's water is located inside cells, whereas most of the body's Na + is in the interstitial fluid and plasma.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #17
The amount of a substance that is excreted in the urine is equal to the amount that is __________ plus the amount that is __________ minus the amount that is __________.
A.   filtered; reabsorbed; secreted
B.   filtered; secreted; reabsorbed
C.   reabsorbed; secreted; filtered
D.   secreted; reabsorbed; filtered
E.   reabsorbed; filtered; secreted
Question #18
When blood Ca 2+ levels fall below normal, in what ways do the kidneys help restore them toward normal?
A.   By increasing renal secretion of parathyroid hormone and increasing bone resorption
B.   By decreasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, increasing tubularphosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubular Ca2+ reabsorption
C.   By increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, decreasing tubular phosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubular Ca2+ reabsorption
D.   By increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, increasing tubular phosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubularCa2+ reabsorption
E.   Increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation and increasing secretion of parathyroid hormone
Question #19
At the bend of the loop of Henle, the osmolarity of the tubular fluid is more than four times greater than that of the glomerular filtrate when a person is in an antidiuretic state.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #20
Which of the following substances undergoes renal tubular secretion?
A.   Ca 2+
B.   K +
C.   H 20
D.   Na +
Question #21
The total solute concentration in the extracellular fluid is mainly dependent upon the concentration of Na + in the extracellular fluid.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #22
The three basic processes of kidney function are filtration from the glomerulus into Bowman's capsule, secretion from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries, and reabsorption from the capillaries into the tubular lumen.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #23
Regulation of Ca2+ balance, like that of Na+ and K+ balance, is only determined by the kidneys.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #24
A compensation for an episode of severe vomiting is an increased alveolar ventilationrate.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #25
Which correctly describes the composition of the glomerular filtrate?
A.   It is similar to plasma, except it does not contain plasma proteins.
B.   It is similar to plasma, except it does not contain glucose.
C.   It is identical to blood plasma, except it lacks red blood cells.
D.   It is identical to urine, but has a much smaller flow rate.
E.   It is identical to urine, but has a much larger flow rate.
Question #26
The major source of estradiol and progesterone in a non-pregnant woman is the
A.   ovary.
B.   uterus.
C.   testis.
D.   adrenal gland.
E.   thyroid gland.
Question #27
At birth, the ovaries of a female baby contain less thanone million oogonia.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #28
Julia is a new mother who plans to continue lactation for at least a year after her baby is born. At a post-parturition doctor's visit, the doctor says her blood test indicates declining levels of estrogen and progesterone. Will this interfere with her plans to lactate?
A.   No, because the secretion of oxytocin and prolactin are more important for lactation.
B.   Yes, high levels of estrogen and progesterone are required for milk ejection.
C.   Yes, high levels of estrogen and progesterone are required for milk production.
D.   No, because even in the absence of hormones, suckling at the breast is sufficient stimulus for milk production.
Question #29
Many forms of birth control prevent ovulation, although follicular maturation continues to occur. Which of the following would NOT occur in a woman on one of these forms of birth control?
A.   Expulsion of the corpus luteum from the ovary
B.   Expulsion of the thecal cells onto the ovarian surface
C.   All of these will still occur
D.   The second meiotic division of the oocyte
E.   Completion of the first meiotic division of the oocyte
Question #30
Inhibiting the hormone inhibin would stop sperm production and therefore be a possible mechanism for male birth control.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #31
Erection of the penis is a result of vasodilation brought about by a reflex involving nonadrenergic, noncholinergic autonomic neurons.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #32
Blood in the umbilical arteries is well oxygenated, whereas that in the umbilical vein is poorly oxygenated.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #33
Dysmenorrhea refers to pain or discomfort during menses.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #34
Spermatogenesis
A.   takes place completely within the lumen of the seminiferous tubule.
B.   results in four spermatozoa for every primary spermatocyte.
C.   begins with the mitotic division of spermatogonia.
D.   is not complete until after an egg is fertilized, which initiates the second meiotic division.
E.   results in four primary spermatocytes for every spermatogonium.
Question #35
Which of these results from the second meiotic division?
A.   A single daughter cell with 46 chromosomes, and a polar body with no genetic material
B.   Two haploid daughter cells with 46 haploid chromosomes
C.   Two diploid daughter cells with 23 chromosomes each
D.   Two haploid daughter cells with 23 chromosomes each
E.   Two diploid daughter cells with 46 chromosomes each
Question #36
Agatha’s blastocyst implanted on December 5 th. She is trying to figure out which date fertilization most likely occurred on. Which is the most likely date of fertilization?
A.   November 5th
B.   December 5th
C.   November 25th
D.   December 1st
E.   December 4th
Question #37
  
A.   Sertoli cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to dihydrotestosterone.
B.   Theca cells synthesize an androgen which luteal cells convert to estrogen.
C.   Production of progesterone by the corpus luteum requires cooperative interaction between two cell types.
D.   Theca cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to estrogen.
E.   Granulosa cells synthesize an androgen which the theca cells convert to estrogen.
Question #38
Liz is 5 weeks pregnant. During an ultrasound of her ovaries, which of the following can be seen?
A.   No follicles beyond primordial follicle stage
B.   No follicles
C.   10–25 mature follicles
D.   Several follicles in primordial, primary, and preantral stages and one corpus luteum
E.   One large corpus luteum and no other follicles beyond primordial stage
Question #39
The only cells of the testis that can secrete hormonesare the Leydig cells.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #40
During a routine check in the second trimester Erica’s doctor tells her that the placenta is half the size typically seen at this stage of pregnancy. Which of the following is a concern?
A.   Inadequate exchange of nutrients and waste, thereby limiting fetal growth
B.   Less maternal blood than is typical will be able to flow into fetal circulation
C.   None of these will be a concern
D.   Inadequate levels of the hormones of pregnancy
E.   The fetus may become overly large due to extra space in the uterus
Question #41
Which of the following statements regarding male reproductive function is FALSE?
A.   The Sertoli cells produce androgen-binding protein.
B.   Sperm formed in the testes enter the epididymis before entering the vas deferens.
C.   The seminal fluid is alkaline and rich in nutrients.
D.   Sperm entering the epididymis are fully motile.
E.   Most of the seminal volume is provided by the secretions of the seminal vesicles and prostate gland.
Question #42
During meiosis, crossing-over results in the exchange of homologous genes from one of a pair of chromatids to the other with no net change in possibilities for genetic expression.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #43
Jim has just been diagnosed with testicular cancer. The tumor is composed of Sertoli cells and they have begun to produce excessive amounts of inhibin. Which of the following would be TRUE?
A.   FSH secretion would be selectively inhibited, but LH secretion would be normal.
B.   Gonadotropin-releasing hormone levels and spermatogenesis would increase above normal.
C.   Both FSH and LH secretion would rise above normal levels.
D.   Spermatogenesis would be increased because testosterone production would be above normal.
E.   Spermatogenesis would be increasedbut testosterone secretion would be normal.
Question #44
Implantation of a blastocyst
A.   normally occurs within the oviduct (fallopian tube).
B.   occurs within 24 hours of fertilization of the oocyte.
C.   requires the presence of high concentrations of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
D.   takes place at a time in the typical menstrual cycle when estrogen concentration in the blood is higher than progesterone concentrationin the blood.
E.   normally begins around day 21 of the typical menstrual cycle.
Question #45
Luteinizing hormone stimulates testosterone secretion by the Leydig cells of the testes.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #46
The products of the first meiotic division of spermatogenesis are spermatids.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #47
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding oxytocin?
A.   It stimulates synthesis of breast milk.
B.   It facilitates the birth process.
C.   It is secreted by the posterior pituitary.
D.   It is regulated by a positive feedback loop.
E.   It stimulates uterine contractions.
Question #48
Infertility treatments most often involve the injection of aromatases, leading to enhanced numbers of developing early ovarian antral follicles.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #49
With regard to reproduction, which is correct about SRY?
A.   It is a gene found in both males and females.
B.   It is a protein that is normally coded for by a gene that is present on the Y chromosome.
C.   It is a protein normally coded for by a gene that is present on the X chromosome.
D.   It is a gene thatcodes for testosterone.
E.   It is a protein that causes the degeneration of the Wolffian ducts.
Question #50
If you start at the plasma membrane of an oocyte in a mature follicle and move outward, which is the correct order in which you would encounter the three structures listed below?
A.   Zona pellucida; granulosa cells; theca cells
B.   Zona pellucida; theca cells; granulosa cells
C.   Theca cells; zona pellucida; granulosa cells
D.   Granulosa cells; theca cells; zona pellucida
E.   Granulosa cells; zona pellucida; theca cells
Question #51
______________regulation describes regulation of cellular activity by messengers from nearby cells.
A.   Paracrine
B.   Pellucida
Question #52
Which one of the following is the correct sequence for a regulatory reflex arc?
A.   Stimulus, effector, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, receptor
B.   Stimulus, effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor
C.   Stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, effector
D.   Effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor, stimulus
E.   Stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector
Question #53
Neglecting protein differences, which of the following fluids has a virtually identical solute concentration?
A.   None of these choices
B.   The extracellular fluid and the plasma
C.   The interstitial fluid and the intracellular fluid
D.   The interstitial fluid and the plasma
E.   The interstitial fluid, the extracellular fluid, and the plasma
Question #54
Circadian rhythms are biological rhythms with what main characteristic?
A.   They cease to occur when a person is in a dark environment.
B.   They repeat approximately every 24 hours, like daily spikes in hormone secretion.
C.   They are cyclical, like the 28-day female menstrual cycle.
D.   They are voluntary rhythms, like the time you decide to eat lunch each day.
E.   They are cyclical, like the rhythmic beating of the heart.
Question #55
Water is only lost from the body in urine formation.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #56
Which correctly describes the structure of an atom?
A.   There are the same number of neutrons and electrons.
B.   The number of protons, neutrons, and electrons never changes.
C.   There are the same number of protons and electrons.
D.   There are never the same number of neutrons and protons.
E.   There are the same number of protons and neutrons.
Question #57
The atomic number of an element refers to the number of particles in its atomic nucleus.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #58
A solution with a pH of 8 is more acidic than one with a pH of 3.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #59
The special functions of plasma and organelle membranes depend primarily on the specific composition of the phospholipids of those membranes.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #60
Which organelles would you expect to be especially numerous in cells such as muscle cells that have a tremendous demand for energy in the form of ATP?
A.   Peroxisomes
B.   Lysosomes
C.   Endosomes
D.   Ribosomes
E.   Mitochondria
Question #61
The reactions of the Krebs cycle
A.   generate ATP directly by substrate-level phosphorylation.
B.   are important for the metabolism of carbohydrates but not other molecules.
C.   produce pyruvate and lactate as end products.
D.   take place in the cytosol of human cells.
E.   take place only when no oxygen is present.
Question #62
You’re researching a steroid hormone that binds to a receptor inside the cell. Once the receptor binds to its hormone, the receptor moves into the nucleus of the cell. The result of hormone-receptor binding is that new mRNA molecules are made. The receptor is also a
A.   transcription factor.
B.   tRNA molecule.
C.   promoter.
D.   ribosome.
E.   splicosome.
Question #63
Mediated transport is required in order for glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids to pass into cells because none of these substances can diffuse through plasma membranes.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #64
Both primary and secondary active transport require the expenditure of metabolic energy.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #65
Which form of endocytosis is nonspecific, in that it occurs by the formation of an invagination of the plasma membrane, which then fills with interstitial fluid of the immediate area?
A.   Hydrosmosis
B.   Phagocytosis
C.   Hyperosmotic vesicular entrapment
D.   Pinocytosis
E.   Active transport
Question #66
In active transport, the affinity of any given binding site for the molecule to be transported changes as the site goes from facing one side of the membrane to facing the other side.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #67
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A.   Phospholipase C converts ATP to cAMP.
B.   Phosphorylation by protein kinases can stimulate or inhibit the activity of effector proteins.
C.   Phosphodiesterase converts GMP into cGMP
D.   Conversion of ATP to cAMP is a phosphorylation reaction.
E.   Ca2+ is not a second messenger.
Question #68
Amplification of a second-messenger cascade can take place at which level of a signal cascade?
A.   One activated receptor can activate numerous G proteins.
B.   One active effector enzyme can catalyze numerous reactions.
C.   One activated G protein can activate numerous effector enzymes. One activated receptor can activate numerous G proteins. One activated protein kinase can allosterically modulate numerous proteins. One active effector enzyme can catalyze numerous reactions.
D.   One activated protein kinase can allosterically modulate numerous proteins.
E.   One activated G protein can activate numerous effector enzymes.
Question #69
Competition for receptors is strictly a pharmacological phenomenon, since naturally occurring chemical messengers do not compete with each other for the same receptor site.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #70
Which of these is a lipid-soluble messenger?
A.   Cyclic AMP
B.   Protein kinase
C.   Thyroid hormone
D.   Glucose
E.   Sodium
Question #71
Which of the following statements concerning the permeability of a typical neuron membrane at rest is TRUE?
A.   The permeability to Na + is much greater than the permeability to K +.
B.   All of the K+ channels in the membrane are open.
C.   Most of the voltage-gated Na + channels are in the closed state.
D.   There is equal permeability to Na + and K +.
E.   The voltage-gated Na + channels are in the inactivated state.
Question #72
Which of the following statements concerning the properties of action potentials is TRUE?
A.   The rate of propagation of an action potential down an axon is independent of stimulus strength.
B.   Increasing the size of a stimulus will increase the amplitude of an action potential.
C.   Action potentials generally propagate from the axon terminal toward the axon hillock.
D.   A supra-threshold stimulus can stimulate an action potential during the absolute refractory period.
E.   Action potentials can undergo summation.
Question #73
Two stimuli occur on the same neuron more than a minute apart. The second stimulus is more than ten times greater than the first. If we compare the two resulting action potentials, which is TRUE?
A.   The amplitude and duration of the second action potential will be greater than the first.
B.   The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with a longer hyperpolarization at the end.
C.   The action potentials will have amplitude and duration that are the same.
D.   The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with a longer duration.
E.   The amplitude of the two action potentials will be the same.
F.   The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with higher amplitude.
Question #74
The relative refractory period of an axon coincides with the period of
A.   activation and inactivation of voltage-dependent Na + channels.
B.   Na + permeability that is greater than that during the depolarization phase.
C.   increased K + flux into the cell.
D.   Increased Na + flux through K + channels.
E.   increased K + permeability of the cell.
Question #75
Type 2 muscle fibers typically have the fewer mitochondria than type 1.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #76
Which of the following statements regarding skeletal muscle contraction is true?
A.   During every muscle contraction, muscle fibers change length.
B.   During a lengthening contraction, the tension exerted by the muscle exceeds the load on the muscle.
C.   During every muscle contraction, tension is developed in the muscle.
D.   Cross-bridges cycle faster during isometric contractions than during isotonic contractions.
E.   In every isotonic muscle contraction, the length of the muscle remains constant.
Question #77
Which of the following statements regarding skeletal muscle is TRUE?
A.   Skeletal muscle fibers are joined together by gap junctions.
B.   A given skeletal muscle fiber will contract when excitatory nervous stimuli sufficiently exceed inhibitory nervous stimuli at the motor end plate.
C.   Skeletal muscle contraction is inhibited by inhibitory motor neurons that synapse onto skeletal muscle fibers.
D.   A given skeletal muscle fiber will contract if excitatory synaptic inputs sufficiently exceed inhibitory synaptic inputs on the motor neuron that innervates that fiber and the motor neuron fires an action potential.
E.   Skeletal muscle fibers have pacemaker activity.
Question #78
During concentric isotonic contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, which of these occurs?
A.   I bands shorten
B.   Sarcomeres lengthen
C.   A bands lengthen
D.   A bands shorten
E.   Thin filaments shorten
Question #79
Which is TRUE about the muscle fibers found in a muscle spindle?
A.   Their contraction is stimulated by alpha motor neurons and inhibited by gamma motor neurons.
B.   They are not true muscle fibers because they cannot contract.
C.   They function to maintain tension on spindle receptors.
D.   They are innervated by alpha motor neurons.
E.   When stimulated to fire, they always inhibit flexor muscles.
Question #80
Inhibitory input to motor neurons is as important for normal muscle function as excitatory input.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #81
You are designing an experiment to quantify the levels of stress experienced by different individuals. Which of the following tests would reveal insight as to a patient's chronic stress?
A.   Testing plasma levels of growth hormone
B.   Testing plasma levels of dopamine
C.   Testing plasma levels of parathyroid hormone
D.   Testing plasma levels of follicle-stimulating hormone
E.   Testing plasma levels of cortisol
Question #82
Which is NOT true about receptors for steroid hormones?
A.   They may be found in the nucleus.
B.   They are synthesized from cholesterol.
C.   They may beproteins found in the nucleus.
D.   They undergo allosteric modulation when they bind to the hormone.
E.   They regulate gene transcription.
Question #83
Both thyroxine and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)are amine hormones.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #84
In cases where the plasma concentration of an ion or nutrient affects the secretion rate of a hormone, the affected hormone is usuallya regulator of the homeostasis of that ion or nutrient.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #85
Ventricular contractility is the strength of ventricular contraction at any given end-diastolic volume.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #86
Which of the following does NOT describe hypertension? Hypertension
A.   can sometimes be treated with drugs that increase excretion of water in the urine.
B.   is usually a result of chronically elevated cardiac output.
C.   refers to a chronic state of elevated blood pressure.
D.   may be caused by kidney disease.
E.   is usually defined as a systolic pressure greater than 140 mmHg and a diastolic pressure greater than 90 mmHg.
Question #87
What is the term that describes the production of red blood cells?
A.   Hemostasis
B.   Erythroblastosis
C.   Erythropoiesis
D.   Hemaglutination
E.   Erythrocytosis
Question #88
Which of these correctly states differences between atrained athlete and a sedentary individual at rest?
A.   The athlete would have a lower heart rate and larger stroke volume.
B.   The athlete would have a higher heart rate and smaller stroke volume.
C.   The athlete would have a higher heart rate and larger stroke volume.
D.   The athlete would have a lower heart rate and smaller stroke volume.
E.   There would be no differences when the individuals were at rest.
Question #89
Which of these results from hyperventilation?
A.   A decrease in alveolar P O2
B.   Decreased alveolar P CO2
C.   Increased alveolar P O2
D.   An increase in alveolar P CO2
E.   The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions
Question #90
Action potentials in neurons in the inspiratory center of the medulla oblongata result in action potentials in the __________ nerves to the diaphragm, which in turn cause __________ of the muscle, resulting in a/an __________ in the volume of the thoracic cage.
A.   motor; contraction; decrease
B.   sympathetic; relaxation; increase
C.   parasympathetic; contraction; decrease
D.   motor; contraction; increase
E.   sympathetic; contraction; increase
Question #91
Exposure to high altitude is a form of ischemic hypoxia.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #92
If the parietal pleura is cut during surgery, the lung on the side of the cut will expand and the chest wall will be compressed.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #93
Michael has a rare immunological condition that prevents B cell maturation. His doctors first diagnosed him by looking at the levels of secreted immune factors in the blood. Which of the following secreted factors was missing in Michael’s blood?
A.   Type 1 interferons
B.   Type 2 interferons
C.   Colony-stimulating factors
D.   Antibodies
E.   Interleukin 2
Question #94
In a patient taking a hypothetical immunosuppressive drug, all adaptive responses are inhibited. All innate immune responses are still functional, although some are reduced in strength. While taking this drug, which of the following events will still occur in response to infection?
A.   Activation of lymphocytes
B.   Production of antibodies that bind to antigens
C.   B-cell differentiation into plasma cells
D.   Vasodilation of local blood vessels
E.   Antigen interaction with lymphocytes
Question #95
Adaptive immune responses differ from innate immune responses in that the former are mediated by lymphocytes.
A.   FALSE
B.   TRUE
Question #96
After activation of C3 of the complement system, which of these is a role of its component part,C3b?
A.   It acts as a chemotaxin for macrophages.
B.   It causes vasodilation of local blood vessels.
C.   It stimulates the conversion of monocytes to neutrophils.
D.   It acts as an enzyme to convert nitric oxide into hydrogen peroxide.
E.   It acts as an opsonin that is recognized by phagocytes targeting the microbe for destruction.
Question #97
Following diagnosis with pancreatic cancer, Neil had a large portion of his pancreas removed. All of the following will now be found in lower amounts in Neil’s GI tract, except one. Which of the following will NOT be affected?
A.   Trypsinogen
B.   Bicarbonate ions
C.   Lipase
D.   Bile salts
E.   Amylase
Question #98
Which of the following molecules crosses the luminal membrane of intestinal cells by facilitated diffusion?
A.   Maltose
B.   Galactose
C.   Glucose
D.   Fructose
E.   Lactose
Question #99
Which of the following pathways is activated during the cephalic phase of gastrointestinal control?
A.   Secretion of cholecystokinin
B.   Short reflexes between the small intestine and stomach
C.   Sympathetic nerves to enteric nervous system
D.   Secretion of secretin
E.   Parasympathetic nerves to enteric nervous system
Question #100
You’re going hiking and want to pack emergency food in case you get lost or the hike takes longer than you anticipate. Your goal is to pack a food that will have the biggest increase on your blood glucose level to be able to supply your hiking muscles with glucose for cellular respiration. Which of the following foods will lead to the biggest and most immediate increase in blood glucose?
A.   A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick
B.   All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level
C.   A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato
D.   A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery
E.   A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese
Question #101
A man with hypertension takes a diuretic that is not potassium-sparing, and he does not increase his ingestion of potassium. Which of the following side-effects would the drug be most likely to cause?
A.   Cardiac arrhythmia
B.   Increased blood volume
C.   Hyperkalemia
D.   All of these side effects would occur.
E.   Depolarized neuronal cell membranes
Question #102
Compared to the normal plasma osmolarity, the tubular fluid is __________ as it enters Bowman's space, __________ at the beginning of the loop of Henle, __________ at the tip of the loop, and __________ at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule.
A.   isosmotic; hyperosmotic; hyperosmotic; isosmotic
B.   isosmotic; isosmotic; hyperosmotic; isosmotic
C.   isosmotic; isosmotic; hyperosmotic; hypoosmotic
D.   isosmotic; isosmotic; hypoosmotic; hyperosmotic
E.   isosmotic; isosmotic; hypoosmotic; hypoosmotic
Question #103
Increasing the GFR tends to increase the excretion rate of sodium.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE
Question #104
If damage to the glomerular capillaries resulted in significantly enlarged filtration slits in the endothelial lining, one consequence might be loss of protein in the urine.
A.   TRUE
B.   FALSE

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