Econ 1030 - Principles of Microeconomics » Summer 2021 » Test 4
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Question #1
The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:
A.
level of bank credit.
B.
price level.
C.
interest rate.
D.
level of income.
Question #2
If Carol's disposable income increases from $1,200 to $1,700 and her level of saving increases from minus $100 to a plus $100, her marginal propensity to:
A.
consume is three-fifths.
B.
consume is one-half.
C.
save is three-fifths.
D.
consume is two-fifths.
Question #3
The 45-degree line on a graph relating consumption and income shows:
A.
all the points at which saving and income are equal.
B.
the amounts households will plan to save at each possible level of income.
C.
all the points where the MPC is constant.
D.
all the points at which consumption and income are equal.
Question #4
The consumption schedule shows:
A.
that consumption depends primarily on the level of business investment.
B.
that households consume more when interest rates are low.
C.
that the MPC increases in proportion to GDP.
D.
the amounts households intend to consume at various possible levels of aggregate income.
Question #5
The APC is calculated as:
A.
change in consumption/change in income.
B.
consumption/income.
C.
income/consumption.
D.
change in income/change in consumption.
Question #6
The MPC for an economy is:
A.
the slope of the consumption schedule or line.
B.
1 divided by the slope of the savings schedule or line.
C.
1 divided by the slope of the consumption schedule or line.
D.
the slope of the savings schedule or line.
Question #7
Which one of the following will cause a movement down along an economy's consumption schedule?
A.
A decrease in disposable income.
B.
An increase in consumer indebtedness.
C.
An increase in stock prices.
D.
A decrease in stock prices.
Question #8
Dissaving occurs where:
A.
income exceeds consumption.
B.
saving exceeds income.
C.
consumption exceeds income.
D.
saving exceeds consumption.
Question #9
At the point where the consumption schedule intersects the 45-degree line:
A.
saving equals income.
B.
the MPC equals 1.
C.
saving is zero.
D.
the APC is zero.
Question #10
If the marginal propensity to consume is .9, then the marginal propensity to save must be:
A.
-0.9
B.
0.1
C.
1.1
D.
1
Question #11
If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.9, the multiplier is:
A.
mone of these
B.
1
C.
9
D.
10
Question #12
In the late 1990s, the U.S. stock market boomed, causing U.S. consumption to rise. Economists refer to this outcome as the:
A.
interest-rate effect.
B.
multiplier effect.
C.
wealth effect.
D.
Keynes effect.
Question #13
Which of the following will not tend to shift the consumption schedule upward?
A.
The expectation of future shortages of essential consumer goods.
B.
The expectation of a future decline in the consumer price index.
C.
A currently low level of household debt.
D.
A currently small stock of durable goods in the possession of consumers.
Question #14
If for some reason households become increasingly thrifty, we could show this by:
A.
an upward shift of the consumption schedule.
B.
a movement down along a stable consumption function.
C.
a downshift of the saving schedule.
D.
an upward shift of the saving schedule.
Question #15
The investment demand curve portrays an inverse (negative) relationship between:
A.
the price level and the level of investment spending..
B.
the nominal interest rate and the level of investment spending..
C.
the level of investment spending and real GDP..
D.
the real interest rate and the level of investment spending..
Question #16
Suppose that a new machine tool having a useful life of only one year costs $80,000. Suppose, also, that the net additional revenue resulting from buying this tool is expected to be $96,000. The expected rate of return on this tool is:
A.
8 percent.
B.
2 percent.
C.
20 percent.
D.
80 percent.
Question #17
A decline in the real interest rate will:
A.
increase the amount of investment spending.
B.
shift the investment demand curve to the right.
C.
shift the investment schedule downward.
D.
shift the investment demand curve to the left.
Question #18
The immediate determinants of investment spending are the:
A.
expected rate of return on capital goods and the real interest rate.
B.
marginal propensity to consume and the real interest rate.
C.
interest rate and the expected price level.
D.
level of saving and the real interest rate.
Question #19
Other things equal, a 10 percent decrease in corporate income taxes will:
A.
shift the investment-demand curve to the right.
B.
have no effect on the location of the investment-demand curve.
C.
decrease the market price of real capital goods.
D.
shift the investment-demand curve to the left.
Question #20
The real interest rate is:
A.
the percentage increase in purchasing power that the lender receives on a loan.
B.
usually higher than the nominal interest rate.
C.
also called the after-tax interest rate.
D.
the percentage increase in money that the lender receives on a loan.
Question #21
If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:
A.
18 percent.
B.
6 percent.
C.
24 percent.
D.
12 percent.
Question #22
A high rate of inflation is likely to cause a:
A.
decrease in nominal wages.
B.
high nominal interest rate.
C.
low nominal interest rate.
D.
low rate of growth of nominal GDP.
Question #23
Investment spending in the United States tends to be unstable because:
A.
expected profits are highly variable.
B.
capital goods are durable, expected profits are highly variable, and innovation occurs at an irregular pace.
C.
innovation occurs at an irregular pace.
D.
capital goods are durable.
Question #24
The multiplier effect means that:
A.
a change in consumption can cause a larger increase in investment.
B.
a decline in the MPC can cause GDP to rise by several times that amount.
C.
consumption is typically several times as large as saving.
D.
an increase in investment can cause GDP to change by a larger amount.
Question #25
The multiplier is useful in determining the:
A.
level of business inventories.
B.
change in the rate of inflation from a change in the interest rate.
C.
full-employment unemployment rate
D.
change in GDP resulting from a change in spending.
Question #26
(Consider This) During the Great Recession of 2007-2009, both real interest rates and investment spending declined. This suggests that:
A.
purchases of capital from abroad increased, and these were not reflected in investment spending figures for that period.
B.
firms were optimistic about future sales.
C.
the investment demand curve was positively sloped during this period.
D.
the investment demand curve shifted inward.
Question #27
John Maynard Keynes created the aggregate expenditures model based primarily on what historical event?
A.
Economic expansion of the 1920s
B.
Bank panic of 1907
C.
Spectacular economic growth during World War II.
D.
Great Depression.
Question #28
The aggregate expenditures model is built upon which of the following assumptions?
A.
The economy is at full employment.
B.
Prices are fixed.
C.
Prices are fully flexible.
D.
Government spending policy has no ability to affect the level of output.
Question #29
In the United States from 1929 to 1933, real GDP _____________ and the unemployment rate ________________.
A.
declined by 21 percent; rose to 27 percent
B.
declined by 27 percent; rose to 25 percent
C.
declined by 40 percent; rose to 50 percent
D.
increased by 21 percent; fell to 2 percent
Question #30
In the aggregate expenditures model, it is assumed that investment:
A.
changes by less in percentage terms than changes in real GDP.
B.
does not change when real GDP changes.
C.
automatically changes in response to changes in real GDP.
D.
does not respond to changes in interest rates.
Question #31
If at some level of GDP the economy is experiencing an unintended decrease in inventories:
A.
the aggregate level of saving will decline.
B.
the business sector will lay off workers.
C.
the price level will fall.
D.
domestic output will increase.
Question #32
In the aggregate expenditures model, technological progress will shift the investment schedule:
A.
downward and decrease aggregate expenditures.
B.
downward and increase aggregate expenditures.
C.
upward and decrease aggregate expenditures.
D.
upward and increase aggregate expenditures.
Question #33
Imports have the same effect on the current size of GDP as:
A.
investment.
B.
exports.
C.
saving.
D.
consumption.
Question #34
If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:
A.
the multiplier to decrease.
B.
a country's net exports to fall.
C.
a country's exports and imports to both fall
D.
a country's net exports to rise.
Question #35
Other things equal, a serious recession in the economies of U.S. trading partners will:
A.
have no perceptible impact on the U.S. economy.
B.
cause inflation in the U.S. economy.
C.
depress real output and employment in the U.S. economy.
D.
stimulate real output and employment in the U.S. economy.
Question #36
The aggregate demand curve is:
A.
horizontal when there is considerable unemployment in the economy.
B.
vertical under conditions of full employment.
C.
downsloping because production costs decrease as real output rises.
D.
downsloping because of the interest-rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.
Question #37
A.
an increase in the price level will increase the demand for money, increase interest rates, and decrease consumption and investment spending.
B.
an increase in the price level will decrease the demand for money, reduce interest rates, and increase consumption and investment spending.
C.
an increase in the price level will increase the demand for money, reduce interest rates, and decrease consumption and investment spending.
D.
a decrease in the supply of money will increase interest rates and reduce interest-sensitive consumption and investment spending.
Question #38
The real-balances effect indicates that:
A.
an increase in the price level will increase the demand for money, increase interest rates, and reduce consumption and investment spending.
B.
a higher price level will increase the real value of many financial assets and therefore increase spending.
C.
a lower price level will decrease the real value of many financial assets and therefore reduce spending.
D.
a higher price level will decrease the real value of many financial assets and therefore reduce spending.
Question #39
The foreign purchases effect suggests that an increase in the U.S. price level relative to other countries will:
A.
decrease both U.S. imports and U.S. exports.
B.
increase the amount of U.S. real output purchased.
C.
increase U.S. imports and decrease U.S. exports.
D.
increase both U.S. imports and U.S. exports.
Question #40
The determinants of aggregate demand:
A.
include input prices and resource productivity.
B.
explain shifts in the aggregate demand curve.
C.
demonstrate why real output and the price level are inversely related.
D.
explain why the aggregate demand curve is downsloping.
Question #41
Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?
A.
An increase in personal income tax rates.
B.
Depreciation of the international value of the dollar.
C.
A change in the price level.
D.
A decline in the interest rate at each possible price level.
Question #42
Which of the following would most likely shift the aggregate demand curve to the right?
A.
A reduction in household borrowing because of tighter lending practices.
B.
Increased fear that a recession will cause workers to lose their jobs.
C.
An increase in personal income tax rates.
D.
An increase in stock prices that increases consumer wealth.
Question #43
Which of the following would most likely reduce aggregate demand (shift the AD curve to the left)?
A.
A reduced amount of excess capacity.
B.
Increased consumer optimism regarding future economic conditions.
C.
Increased government spending on military equipment.
D.
An appreciation of the U.S. dollar.
Question #44
What percentage of the average U.S. firm's costs are accounted for by wages and salaries?
A.
85
B.
60
C.
75
D.
40
Question #45
Which one of the following would increase per-unit production cost and therefore shift the aggregate supply curve to the left?
A.
Production bottlenecks occurring when producers near full plant capacity.
B.
An increase in the price of imported resources.
C.
Deregulation of industry.
D.
A reduction in business taxes.
Question #46
A.
per-unit production costs.
B.
real output per unit of input
C.
the amount of capital goods used per worker.
D.
the changes in real wealth caused by price level changes.
Question #47
The economy's long-run aggregate supply curve:
A.
is vertical.
B.
slopes downward and to the right.
C.
is horizontal.
D.
slopes upward and to the right.
Question #48
Graphically, demand-pull inflation is shown as a:
A.
leftward shift of the AS curve along an upsloping AD curve.
B.
leftward shift of the AS curve along a downsloping AD curve.
C.
rightward shift of the AD curve along a downsloping AS curve.
D.
rightward shift of the AD curve along an upsloping AS curve.
Question #49
Graphically, cost-push inflation is shown as a:
A.
rightward shift of the AD curve.
B.
leftward shift of the AS curve.
C.
leftward shift of the AD curve.
D.
rightward shift of the AS curve.
Question #50
Graphically, the full-employment, low-inflation, rapid-growth economy of the last half of the 1990s is depicted by a:
A.
rightward shift of the aggregate supply curve along a fixed aggregate demand curve.
B.
rightward shift of the aggregate demand curve and a rightward shift of the aggregate supply curve.
C.
leftward shift of the aggregate demand curve and a leftward shift of the aggregate supply curve.
D.
rightward shift of the aggregate demand curve along a fixed aggregate supply curve.
Question #51
A rightward shift of the AD curve in the very steep upper part of the short-run AS curve will:
A.
reduce real output by more than the price level.
B.
increase the price level by more than real output.
C.
reduce the price level by more than real output.
D.
increase real output by more than the price level.
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