Physiology 101 - Introduction to Human Physiology » Fall 2021 » Exam 2
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Question #1
What is characteristic of fast pain?
A.
Poorly localized
B.
Propagate along small-diameter fibers
C.
Persists for a long time
D.
Impulses carried along myelinated fibers
Question #2
Which of these spinal motor reflexes has a monosynaptic component?
A.
Visceral
B.
Withdrawal
C.
Flexor
D.
Blinking
E.
Stretch
Question #3
Which of the following parts of a reflex arc receives sensory information and decides how to respond to a change in the body’s condition?
A.
Integration center
B.
Sensory receptor
C.
Motor neuron
D.
Effector
E.
Sensory neuron
Question #4
In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
B.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
C.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
D.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
Question #5
In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
B.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
C.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
D.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
Question #6
Which of the following options is not correct? Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activity by
A.
decreasing activity in the effector
B.
increasing the size of the action potential between neurons
C.
All of these options are correct
D.
increasing activity in the effector
Question #7
Autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling
A.
Exocrine glands
B.
Skeletal muscle
C.
Endocrine glands
D.
Cardiac muscle
E.
Smooth muscle
Question #8
In the flexor withdrawal reflex (pain = stubbing of the toe), which muscle is activated as part of the contralateral response?
A.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the same leg
B.
Quadriceps, opposite leg of stimulus
C.
Hamstring, opposite leg of stimulus
D.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the opposite leg
E.
Quadriceps, same leg as stimulus
F.
Hamstring, same leg as stimulus
Question #9
If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve was cut; there would be a loss on one side of _________________ at that level
A.
Blood
B.
Sensation
C.
Both sensation and voluntary movement
D.
Intelligence
E.
Voluntary movement
Question #10
Spinocerebellar pathway would be responsible for all of the following except:
A.
Emotion
B.
Coordination
C.
Balance
D.
All of the following are functions of the spinocerebellar pathway
E.
Posture
Question #11
Somatic reflex and autonomic reflex differ based on their effectors. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _______, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _______________.
A.
glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle
B.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only
C.
striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands
D.
skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
E.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
Question #12
All of the following are immediate physiological responses to sympathetic dominance except:
A.
Pupil dilation
B.
High levels of cortisol
C.
Elevated heart rate
D.
Elevated blood pressure
E.
All of these options are immediate sympathetic responses
Question #13
Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division?
A.
Increased blood glucose level
B.
Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat
C.
Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tract
D.
Increased heart rate
E.
Airway constriction
Question #14
Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation?
A.
receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector
B.
receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector
C.
integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector
D.
effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor
E.
receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center
Question #15
Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Sacral spinal cord output
B.
Synapses with sweat glands in skin
C.
Long preganglionic neurons
D.
Ganglia found near visceral effectors/targets
Question #16
A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
A.
has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
B.
is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
C.
carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
D.
has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
E.
releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
Question #17
Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?
A.
Craniosacral division
B.
Autonomic ganglia
C.
Parasympathetic
D.
Somatic nervous system
E.
Sympathetic
Question #18
Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Ganglia primarily found in the head
B.
Short preganglionic neurons
C.
Thoracolumbar output
D.
Stimulates sweat glands
Question #19
Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?
A.
Muscarinic and somatic receptors
B.
Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors
C.
Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
D.
Adrenergic and somatic receptors
E.
Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors
Question #20
Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
A.
Has myelinated axons.
B.
Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
C.
Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
D.
Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
E.
Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
Question #21
The chromaffin cells within the adrenal medulla are innervated directly by
A.
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons
B.
Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
C.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
D.
Sympathetic preganglionic neurons
E.
Somatic motorneurons
Question #22
These are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk.
A.
dorsal rami
B.
superior sacral ganglion
C.
rami communicantes
D.
ventral rami
Question #23
Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
A.
Somatic motor neurons
B.
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
C.
Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
D.
Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
E.
Somatosensory neurons.
Question #24
The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
A.
somatostatin and nicotine.
B.
norepinephrine and muscarine.
C.
nicotine and adrenaline.
D.
norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
E.
muscarine and acetylcholine.
Question #25
Select the incorrect association
A.
Photoreceptor – light
B.
Mechanoreceptor – skeletal muscle stretch
C.
Thermoreceptor – heat and cold
D.
Chemoreceptor – oxygen concentration
E.
Nociceptor – solute concentration
Question #26
The _________________ tract relays sensory information about pain.
A.
Spinocerebellar
B.
Spinothalamic
C.
Corticospinal
Question #27
Monosodium glutamate would activate which taste receptors
A.
Salt
B.
Sweet
C.
Sour
D.
Umami
E.
Bitter
Question #28
Match the receptors to their correct location: Exteroceptors
A.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
B.
Organs
C.
Skin surface
Question #29
Match the receptors to their correct location: Interoceptors
A.
Organs
B.
Skin surface
C.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
Question #30
Match the receptors to their correct location: Proprioceptors
A.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
B.
Skin surface
C.
Organs
Question #31
Which central nervous system structure do most of the somatic sensory input decussate at?
A.
Midbrain
B.
Thalamus
C.
Cerebral cortex
D.
Medulla oblongata
E.
Spinal cord
Question #32
Sour taste represents stimuli caused by
A.
Sugars
B.
Acids
C.
Bases
D.
Alkaloids
E.
Salts
Question #33
Gustation and olfaction primarily involve what type of specialized receptors?
A.
Proprioreceptors
B.
Chemoreceptors
C.
Thermoreceptors
D.
Baroreceptors
E.
Mechanoreceptors
Question #34
All of the following are necessary components in the process of sensation, except for:
A.
Generation of nerve impulse
B.
Stimulus transduction
C.
Sensory Reception
D.
Implementation of a motor response
E.
Integration of sensory input
Question #35
The conversion of stimuli into neuron action potentials
A.
Requires an adequate level of stimulus
B.
Stems from generation of receptor potentials
C.
Is called transduction
D.
All of the options are correct
Question #36
Which central nervous system structure is the major sensory relay center?
A.
Medulla oblongata
B.
Midbrain
C.
Spinal cord
D.
Thalamus
E.
Cerebral cortex
Question #37
A.
All of the options listed are correct
B.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other.
C.
Proprioceptive sensations include static and dynamic equilibrium.
D.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects.
E.
Proprioceptors are also embedded in muscles and tendons
Question #38
How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?
A.
Dozens
B.
Hundreds
C.
One
D.
Thousands
E.
None
Question #39
Sound waves vibrates this structure in the ear
A.
tympanic membrane
B.
organ of Corti
C.
cochlea
D.
pinna
E.
vestibulocochlear nerve
Question #40
Visceral pain results from stimulating
A.
exteroreceptors.
B.
proprioceptors.
C.
Pacinian corpuscles.
D.
nociceptors.
E.
thermoreceptors.
Question #41
These are sensory receptors that are located in blood vessels and visceral organs and their signals are not usually consciously perceived.
A.
Exteroreceptors
B.
Proprioceptors
C.
None of the answers selections are correct
D.
Nociceptors
E.
Interoceptors
Question #42
Which of the following structures senses change in rotational acceleration of the head in order to help maintain dynamic equilibrium?
A.
cochlea
B.
organ of Corti
C.
maculae of the vestibule
D.
semicircular canals
E.
vestibulocochlear nerve
Question #43
What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the osmotic pressure of body fluids?
A.
thermoreceptor
B.
mechanoreceptor
C.
osmoreceptor
D.
chemoreceptor
E.
photoreceptor
Question #44
The process in which the frequency of nerve impulses in the first-order neuron decreases during prolonged stimulus is called
A.
selectivity.
B.
modality
C.
perception.
D.
adaptation.
E.
transduction.
Question #45
The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is
A.
generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.
B.
absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.
C.
activation of amacrine cells.
D.
absorption of light by photopigments.
Question #46
The olfactory tract
A.
conducts impulses directly to the thalamus.
B.
receives information from the taste buds.
C.
contains only motor neurons.
D.
projects directly to the primary olfactory cortex and to the limbic system and hypothalamus.
Question #47
Which of the following statements accurately describes the changes in the membrane potential of a photoreceptor cell when light rays strike its photopigments?
A.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes hyperpolarization.
B.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes rapid depolarization.
C.
The photoreceptor cell creates action potentials at a frequency proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus.
D.
A graded potential proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus occurs in the photoreceptor cell.
E.
No changes in the membrane potential occur.
Question #48
______________ is a term used to describe pain that is felt at a site remote from the place of origin.
A.
Slow pain
B.
Referred pain
C.
Fast pain
D.
Sympathetic pain
E.
Visceral pain
Question #49
Proprioception means awareness of
A.
body temperature.
B.
color vision.
C.
visual acuity.
D.
pain.
E.
body position.
Question #50
The main function of muscle spindles is
A.
to sense muscle fatigue.
B.
to sense referred pain.
C.
to perceive cutaneous sensations.
D.
to sense changes in muscle length.
Question #51
All of the following types of stimuli are sensed by free nerve endings EXCEPT
A.
temperature.
B.
itch.
C.
pain.
D.
pressure.
E.
tickle.
Question #52
Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant
A.
increases sensitivity to that odorant.
B.
does not occur.
C.
occurs rapidly.
D.
occurs slowly.
E.
enhances gustation.
Question #53
Olfactory receptors are found
A.
only in the mid-nasal ridges.
B.
only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity.
C.
from the vestibule to the pharynx.
D.
throughout the nasal cavity.
E.
only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.
Question #54
Binocular vision
A.
is only seen in humans.
B.
is all of these choices
C.
provides more accurate color vision.
D.
occurs when one eye focuses on two separate objects.
E.
gives better depth perception.
Question #55
Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A.
Thyroid hormone
B.
Glucagon
C.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D.
Insulin
E.
Calcitonin
Question #56
Which of the following situations represents negative feedback?
A.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then stimulates hormone A
B.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
C.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
D.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
E.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
Question #57
Which of the following hormones is released by the hypothalamus?
A.
Corticotropin releasing hormone
B.
Follicle stimulating hormone
C.
Growth hormone
D.
Luteinizing hormone
E.
Thyroid stimulating hormone
Question #58
Lipophilic (lipid-soluble) hormones
A.
Activate second-messenger systems within their target cells
B.
Bind with receptors located on the cell membrane
C.
include steroids and thyroid hormone
D.
All of these are correct answers
Question #59
Which of the following receptors regenerate after cell death?
A.
Olfactory receptors
B.
Photoreceptors
C.
Gustatory receptors
D.
All of these receptors regenerate after cell death
E.
Gustatory and Olfactory receptors
Question #60
All of the following hormone pairs are synergistic except for
A.
Follicle stimulating hormone and estrogen
B.
Human Growth Hormone and testosterone
C.
All of these are synergistic pairs
D.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
E.
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
Question #61
All of the following are prime examples of negative feedback loops, except for:
A.
Testosterone
B.
Calcitonin
C.
Human growth hormone
D.
Oxytocin
E.
All of these options are prime examples
Question #62
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Protein and fat breakdown
B.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
C.
Reduction of inflammation
D.
Glucose formation
E.
Depression of immune responses
Question #63
When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This is called
A.
Down-regulation
B.
Up-regulation
C.
Sensory adaptation
D.
Paracrine regulation
E.
Receptor recognition
Question #64
The endocrine cells in the adrenal medulla are primarily innervated by which branch of the nervous system?
A.
Sympathetic
B.
Somatic
C.
Parasympathetic
D.
Sensory
E.
Central
Question #65
The most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones is
A.
Plasma proteins
B.
Calcium
C.
Messenger RNA
D.
Cyclic AMP
E.
Chromatin
Question #66
Which of the following would occur within the liver in response to insulin?
A.
Glycogenesis
B.
Epinephrine release
C.
Gluconeogenesis
D.
Calcitonin downregulation
E.
Glycogenolysis
Question #67
Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell?
A.
Signals from the nervous system
B.
Both Signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood
C.
Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell
D.
Chemical changes in the blood
E.
Releasing hormones.
Question #68
Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4?
A.
Oxidation of iodide
B.
Iodide trapping
C.
Iodination of tyrosine
D.
Coupling of T1 and T2
E.
Synthesis of calcitonin
Question #69
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth?
A.
Prolactin
B.
Luteinizing hormone
C.
Thyrotropin
D.
Growth hormone
E.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Question #70
Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?
A.
Thyrotrophs
B.
Somatotrophs
C.
Lactotrophs
D.
Gonadotrophs
E.
Corticotrophs
Question #71
Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions?
A.
Calcium
B.
Manganese
C.
Sodium
D.
Potassium
E.
Chloride
Question #72
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Reduction of inflammation
B.
Depression of immune responses
C.
Glucose formation
D.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
E.
Protein and fat breakdown
Question #73
What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland?
A.
Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B.
Muscle contraction
C.
Action potentials from the thalamus
D.
Hormones released from the hypothalamus
E.
The peripheral nervous system
Question #74
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol?
A.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
B.
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
C.
Insulin-like growth factors
D.
Prolactin
E.
Leutinizing hormone
Question #75
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production?
A.
Thyrotropin
B.
Prolactin
C.
Luteinizing hormone
D.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
E.
Melanocyte stimulating hormone
Question #76
Which of the following pairs of hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
A.
Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin
B.
Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone
C.
Prolactin and growth hormone
D.
Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
E.
Prolactin and ACTH
Question #77
Which hormone effect on the muscle is correct?
A.
Erythropoietin blocks formation of erythrocytes.
B.
Calcitonin is the primary regulator of Ca2+ needed for contraction.
C.
ADH promotes water loss.
D.
Epinephrine helps increase blood flow to exercising muscle.
E.
Thyroid hormone decreases muscle mass.
Question #78
A hormone that travels through the blood vessels to distant effectors is considered
A.
paracrine.
B.
local hormone.
C.
circulating hormone.
D.
autocrine.
Question #79
How many hormones do the five types of anterior pituitary cells secrete?
A.
10
B.
12
C.
7
D.
unlimited
E.
5
Question #80
Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
A.
Produces electrolytes
B.
Regulates metabolism
C.
Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
D.
Controls growth and development
Question #81
When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, it is called a(n)
A.
permissive effect.
B.
antagonistic effect.
C.
synergistic effect.
D.
circulating effect.
E.
local effect.
Question #82
Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells?
A.
Somatostatin
B.
Glucagon
C.
Calcitonin
D.
Thyroid hormones
E.
Insulin
Question #83
Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol?
A.
Nitric oxide
B.
Amine hormones
C.
Steroids
D.
Peptide hormones
E.
Thyroid hormones
Question #84
Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
A.
Increased lipolysis
B.
Increased gluconeogenesis
C.
Increased digestive activities
D.
Increased glycogenesis
E.
Increased breakdown of proteins
Question #85
What is the result of decreased secretion of aldosterone?
A.
Decreased airway dilation
B.
Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain
C.
Dehydration
D.
Metabolic acidosis
E.
Decreased heart rate
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