Physiology 101 - Introduction to Human Physiology » Fall 2021 » Exam 2
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Question #1
What is characteristic of fast pain?
A.
Poorly localized
B.
Persists for a long time
C.
Impulses carried along myelinated fibers
D.
Propagate along small-diameter fibers
Question #2
Which of these spinal motor reflexes has a monosynaptic component?
A.
Flexor
B.
Stretch
C.
Withdrawal
D.
Blinking
E.
Visceral
Question #3
Which of the following parts of a reflex arc receives sensory information and decides how to respond to a change in the body’s condition?
A.
Motor neuron
B.
Effector
C.
Sensory receptor
D.
Integration center
E.
Sensory neuron
Question #4
In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
B.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
C.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
D.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
Question #5
In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
B.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
C.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
D.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
Question #6
Which of the following options is not correct? Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activity by
A.
increasing activity in the effector
B.
decreasing activity in the effector
C.
increasing the size of the action potential between neurons
D.
All of these options are correct
Question #7
Autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling
A.
Endocrine glands
B.
Cardiac muscle
C.
Smooth muscle
D.
Exocrine glands
E.
Skeletal muscle
Question #8
In the flexor withdrawal reflex (pain = stubbing of the toe), which muscle is activated as part of the contralateral response?
A.
Quadriceps, opposite leg of stimulus
B.
Hamstring, same leg as stimulus
C.
Hamstring, opposite leg of stimulus
D.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the same leg
E.
Quadriceps, same leg as stimulus
F.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the opposite leg
Question #9
If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve was cut; there would be a loss on one side of _________________ at that level
A.
Both sensation and voluntary movement
B.
Blood
C.
Voluntary movement
D.
Sensation
E.
Intelligence
Question #10
Spinocerebellar pathway would be responsible for all of the following except:
A.
All of the following are functions of the spinocerebellar pathway
B.
Coordination
C.
Posture
D.
Balance
E.
Emotion
Question #11
Somatic reflex and autonomic reflex differ based on their effectors. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _______, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _______________.
A.
skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
B.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
C.
striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands
D.
glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle
E.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only
Question #12
All of the following are immediate physiological responses to sympathetic dominance except:
A.
High levels of cortisol
B.
Elevated blood pressure
C.
Pupil dilation
D.
Elevated heart rate
E.
All of these options are immediate sympathetic responses
Question #13
Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division?
A.
Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat
B.
Airway constriction
C.
Increased blood glucose level
D.
Increased heart rate
E.
Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tract
Question #14
Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation?
A.
receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center
B.
integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector
C.
receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector
D.
effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor
E.
receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector
Question #15
Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Ganglia found near visceral effectors/targets
B.
Long preganglionic neurons
C.
Synapses with sweat glands in skin
D.
Sacral spinal cord output
Question #16
A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
A.
carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
B.
releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
C.
has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
D.
is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
E.
has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
Question #17
Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?
A.
Parasympathetic
B.
Sympathetic
C.
Somatic nervous system
D.
Craniosacral division
E.
Autonomic ganglia
Question #18
Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Short preganglionic neurons
B.
Ganglia primarily found in the head
C.
Stimulates sweat glands
D.
Thoracolumbar output
Question #19
Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?
A.
Muscarinic and somatic receptors
B.
Adrenergic and somatic receptors
C.
Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors
D.
Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
E.
Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors
Question #20
Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
A.
Has myelinated axons.
B.
Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
C.
Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
D.
Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
E.
Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
Question #21
The chromaffin cells within the adrenal medulla are innervated directly by
A.
Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
B.
Somatic motorneurons
C.
Sympathetic preganglionic neurons
D.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
E.
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons
Question #22
These are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk.
A.
dorsal rami
B.
rami communicantes
C.
ventral rami
D.
superior sacral ganglion
Question #23
Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
A.
Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B.
Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C.
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
D.
Somatic motor neurons
E.
Somatosensory neurons.
Question #24
The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
A.
muscarine and acetylcholine.
B.
norepinephrine and muscarine.
C.
nicotine and adrenaline.
D.
somatostatin and nicotine.
E.
norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
Question #25
Select the incorrect association
A.
Thermoreceptor – heat and cold
B.
Photoreceptor – light
C.
Chemoreceptor – oxygen concentration
D.
Mechanoreceptor – skeletal muscle stretch
E.
Nociceptor – solute concentration
Question #26
The _________________ tract relays sensory information about pain.
A.
Corticospinal
B.
Spinothalamic
C.
Spinocerebellar
Question #27
Monosodium glutamate would activate which taste receptors
A.
Umami
B.
Bitter
C.
Sour
D.
Salt
E.
Sweet
Question #28
Match the receptors to their correct location: Exteroceptors
A.
Organs
B.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
C.
Skin surface
Question #29
Match the receptors to their correct location: Interoceptors
A.
Skin surface
B.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
C.
Organs
Question #30
Match the receptors to their correct location: Proprioceptors
A.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
B.
Skin surface
C.
Organs
Question #31
Which central nervous system structure do most of the somatic sensory input decussate at?
A.
Spinal cord
B.
Thalamus
C.
Medulla oblongata
D.
Midbrain
E.
Cerebral cortex
Question #32
Sour taste represents stimuli caused by
A.
Alkaloids
B.
Bases
C.
Acids
D.
Sugars
E.
Salts
Question #33
Gustation and olfaction primarily involve what type of specialized receptors?
A.
Chemoreceptors
B.
Thermoreceptors
C.
Proprioreceptors
D.
Baroreceptors
E.
Mechanoreceptors
Question #34
All of the following are necessary components in the process of sensation, except for:
A.
Implementation of a motor response
B.
Stimulus transduction
C.
Sensory Reception
D.
Integration of sensory input
E.
Generation of nerve impulse
Question #35
The conversion of stimuli into neuron action potentials
A.
Requires an adequate level of stimulus
B.
All of the options are correct
C.
Is called transduction
D.
Stems from generation of receptor potentials
Question #36
Which central nervous system structure is the major sensory relay center?
A.
Medulla oblongata
B.
Spinal cord
C.
Cerebral cortex
D.
Midbrain
E.
Thalamus
Question #37
Which of the following statements about proprioception is incorrect?
A.
Proprioceptors are also embedded in muscles and tendons
B.
All of the options listed are correct
C.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other.
D.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects.
E.
Proprioceptive sensations include static and dynamic equilibrium.
Question #38
How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?
A.
Thousands
B.
Dozens
C.
None
D.
Hundreds
E.
One
Question #39
Sound waves vibrates this structure in the ear
A.
cochlea
B.
organ of Corti
C.
tympanic membrane
D.
pinna
E.
vestibulocochlear nerve
Question #40
Visceral pain results from stimulating
A.
thermoreceptors.
B.
nociceptors.
C.
exteroreceptors.
D.
proprioceptors.
E.
Pacinian corpuscles.
Question #41
These are sensory receptors that are located in blood vessels and visceral organs and their signals are not usually consciously perceived.
A.
None of the answers selections are correct
B.
Interoceptors
C.
Exteroreceptors
D.
Proprioceptors
E.
Nociceptors
Question #42
Which of the following structures senses change in rotational acceleration of the head in order to help maintain dynamic equilibrium?
A.
cochlea
B.
semicircular canals
C.
organ of Corti
D.
maculae of the vestibule
E.
vestibulocochlear nerve
Question #43
What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the osmotic pressure of body fluids?
A.
thermoreceptor
B.
photoreceptor
C.
mechanoreceptor
D.
chemoreceptor
E.
osmoreceptor
Question #44
The process in which the frequency of nerve impulses in the first-order neuron decreases during prolonged stimulus is called
A.
modality
B.
adaptation.
C.
selectivity.
D.
transduction.
E.
perception.
Question #45
The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is
A.
absorption of light by photopigments.
B.
activation of amacrine cells.
C.
generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.
D.
absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.
Question #46
A.
contains only motor neurons.
B.
projects directly to the primary olfactory cortex and to the limbic system and hypothalamus.
C.
conducts impulses directly to the thalamus.
D.
receives information from the taste buds.
Question #47
Which of the following statements accurately describes the changes in the membrane potential of a photoreceptor cell when light rays strike its photopigments?
A.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes rapid depolarization.
B.
A graded potential proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus occurs in the photoreceptor cell.
C.
The photoreceptor cell creates action potentials at a frequency proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus.
D.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes hyperpolarization.
E.
No changes in the membrane potential occur.
Question #48
______________ is a term used to describe pain that is felt at a site remote from the place of origin.
A.
Slow pain
B.
Visceral pain
C.
Fast pain
D.
Sympathetic pain
E.
Referred pain
Question #49
Proprioception means awareness of
A.
body temperature.
B.
color vision.
C.
pain.
D.
body position.
E.
visual acuity.
Question #50
The main function of muscle spindles is
A.
to perceive cutaneous sensations.
B.
to sense muscle fatigue.
C.
to sense referred pain.
D.
to sense changes in muscle length.
Question #51
All of the following types of stimuli are sensed by free nerve endings EXCEPT
A.
itch.
B.
temperature.
C.
tickle.
D.
pain.
E.
pressure.
Question #52
Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant
A.
occurs rapidly.
B.
does not occur.
C.
enhances gustation.
D.
occurs slowly.
E.
increases sensitivity to that odorant.
Question #53
Olfactory receptors are found
A.
throughout the nasal cavity.
B.
from the vestibule to the pharynx.
C.
only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity.
D.
only in the mid-nasal ridges.
E.
only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.
Question #54
Binocular vision
A.
provides more accurate color vision.
B.
is only seen in humans.
C.
occurs when one eye focuses on two separate objects.
D.
is all of these choices
E.
gives better depth perception.
Question #55
Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A.
Glucagon
B.
Calcitonin
C.
Thyroid hormone
D.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
E.
Insulin
Question #56
Which of the following situations represents negative feedback?
A.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
B.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
C.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
D.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then stimulates hormone A
E.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
Question #57
Which of the following hormones is released by the hypothalamus?
A.
Luteinizing hormone
B.
Thyroid stimulating hormone
C.
Corticotropin releasing hormone
D.
Growth hormone
E.
Follicle stimulating hormone
Question #58
Lipophilic (lipid-soluble) hormones
A.
include steroids and thyroid hormone
B.
Bind with receptors located on the cell membrane
C.
All of these are correct answers
D.
Activate second-messenger systems within their target cells
Question #59
Which of the following receptors regenerate after cell death?
A.
Olfactory receptors
B.
All of these receptors regenerate after cell death
C.
Photoreceptors
D.
Gustatory receptors
E.
Gustatory and Olfactory receptors
Question #60
All of the following hormone pairs are synergistic except for
A.
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
B.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C.
All of these are synergistic pairs
D.
Human Growth Hormone and testosterone
E.
Follicle stimulating hormone and estrogen
Question #61
All of the following are prime examples of negative feedback loops, except for:
A.
Human growth hormone
B.
Testosterone
C.
Calcitonin
D.
Oxytocin
E.
All of these options are prime examples
Question #62
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Protein and fat breakdown
B.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
C.
Reduction of inflammation
D.
Glucose formation
E.
Depression of immune responses
Question #63
When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This is called
A.
Down-regulation
B.
Up-regulation
C.
Receptor recognition
D.
Paracrine regulation
E.
Sensory adaptation
Question #64
The endocrine cells in the adrenal medulla are primarily innervated by which branch of the nervous system?
A.
Sympathetic
B.
Somatic
C.
Sensory
D.
Parasympathetic
E.
Central
Question #65
The most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones is
A.
Plasma proteins
B.
Cyclic AMP
C.
Messenger RNA
D.
Calcium
E.
Chromatin
Question #66
Which of the following would occur within the liver in response to insulin?
A.
Glycogenesis
B.
Gluconeogenesis
C.
Glycogenolysis
D.
Calcitonin downregulation
E.
Epinephrine release
Question #67
Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell?
A.
Both Signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood
B.
Releasing hormones.
C.
Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell
D.
Signals from the nervous system
E.
Chemical changes in the blood
Question #68
Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4?
A.
Synthesis of calcitonin
B.
Iodination of tyrosine
C.
Iodide trapping
D.
Oxidation of iodide
E.
Coupling of T1 and T2
Question #69
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth?
A.
Thyrotropin
B.
Luteinizing hormone
C.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D.
Prolactin
E.
Growth hormone
Question #70
Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?
A.
Thyrotrophs
B.
Corticotrophs
C.
Somatotrophs
D.
Gonadotrophs
E.
Lactotrophs
Question #71
Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions?
A.
Calcium
B.
Manganese
C.
Sodium
D.
Chloride
E.
Potassium
Question #72
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Reduction of inflammation
B.
Depression of immune responses
C.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
D.
Glucose formation
E.
Protein and fat breakdown
Question #73
What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland?
A.
Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B.
Muscle contraction
C.
Action potentials from the thalamus
D.
Hormones released from the hypothalamus
E.
The peripheral nervous system
Question #74
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol?
A.
Leutinizing hormone
B.
Insulin-like growth factors
C.
Prolactin
D.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
E.
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
Question #75
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production?
A.
Prolactin
B.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C.
Thyrotropin
D.
Melanocyte stimulating hormone
E.
Luteinizing hormone
Question #76
Which of the following pairs of hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
A.
Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
B.
Prolactin and ACTH
C.
Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin
D.
Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone
E.
Prolactin and growth hormone
Question #77
Which hormone effect on the muscle is correct?
A.
Calcitonin is the primary regulator of Ca2+ needed for contraction.
B.
Epinephrine helps increase blood flow to exercising muscle.
C.
ADH promotes water loss.
D.
Erythropoietin blocks formation of erythrocytes.
E.
Thyroid hormone decreases muscle mass.
Question #78
A hormone that travels through the blood vessels to distant effectors is considered
A.
autocrine.
B.
local hormone.
C.
circulating hormone.
D.
paracrine.
Question #79
How many hormones do the five types of anterior pituitary cells secrete?
A.
10
B.
7
C.
5
D.
12
E.
unlimited
Question #80
Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
A.
Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
B.
Produces electrolytes
C.
Regulates metabolism
D.
Controls growth and development
Question #81
When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, it is called a(n)
A.
local effect.
B.
circulating effect.
C.
antagonistic effect.
D.
permissive effect.
E.
synergistic effect.
Question #82
Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells?
A.
Calcitonin
B.
Insulin
C.
Somatostatin
D.
Glucagon
E.
Thyroid hormones
Question #83
Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol?
A.
Peptide hormones
B.
Thyroid hormones
C.
Amine hormones
D.
Nitric oxide
E.
Steroids
Question #84
Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
A.
Increased gluconeogenesis
B.
Increased glycogenesis
C.
Increased breakdown of proteins
D.
Increased digestive activities
E.
Increased lipolysis
Question #85
What is the result of decreased secretion of aldosterone?
A.
Metabolic acidosis
B.
Dehydration
C.
Decreased heart rate
D.
Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain
E.
Decreased airway dilation
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