Physiology 101 - Introduction to Human Physiology » Fall 2021 » Exam 2
Need help with your exam preparation?
Get Answers to this exam for $6 USD.
Get Answers to all exams in [ Physiology 101 - Introduction to Human Physiology ] course for $25 USD.
Existing Quiz Clients Login here
Question #1
What is characteristic of fast pain?
A.
Poorly localized
B.
Persists for a long time
C.
Impulses carried along myelinated fibers
D.
Propagate along small-diameter fibers
Question #2
Which of these spinal motor reflexes has a monosynaptic component?
A.
Stretch
B.
Visceral
C.
Blinking
D.
Withdrawal
E.
Flexor
Question #3
Which of the following parts of a reflex arc receives sensory information and decides how to respond to a change in the body’s condition?
A.
Sensory receptor
B.
Effector
C.
Motor neuron
D.
Integration center
E.
Sensory neuron
Question #4
In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
B.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
C.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
D.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
Question #5
In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
B.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
C.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
D.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
Question #6
Which of the following options is not correct? Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activity by
A.
increasing activity in the effector
B.
increasing the size of the action potential between neurons
C.
All of these options are correct
D.
decreasing activity in the effector
Question #7
Autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling
A.
Skeletal muscle
B.
Cardiac muscle
C.
Smooth muscle
D.
Exocrine glands
E.
Endocrine glands
Question #8
In the flexor withdrawal reflex (pain = stubbing of the toe), which muscle is activated as part of the contralateral response?
A.
Quadriceps, same leg as stimulus
B.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the same leg
C.
Quadriceps, opposite leg of stimulus
D.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the opposite leg
E.
Hamstring, opposite leg of stimulus
F.
Hamstring, same leg as stimulus
Question #9
If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve was cut; there would be a loss on one side of _________________ at that level
A.
Both sensation and voluntary movement
B.
Intelligence
C.
Sensation
D.
Blood
E.
Voluntary movement
Question #10
Spinocerebellar pathway would be responsible for all of the following except:
A.
All of the following are functions of the spinocerebellar pathway
B.
Coordination
C.
Posture
D.
Emotion
E.
Balance
Question #11
Somatic reflex and autonomic reflex differ based on their effectors. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _______, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _______________.
A.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
B.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only
C.
striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands
D.
glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle
E.
skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
Question #12
All of the following are immediate physiological responses to sympathetic dominance except:
A.
Pupil dilation
B.
All of these options are immediate sympathetic responses
C.
Elevated heart rate
D.
High levels of cortisol
E.
Elevated blood pressure
Question #13
Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division?
A.
Airway constriction
B.
Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tract
C.
Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat
D.
Increased blood glucose level
E.
Increased heart rate
Question #14
Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation?
A.
receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center
B.
integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector
C.
receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector
D.
effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor
E.
receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector
Question #15
Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Synapses with sweat glands in skin
B.
Ganglia found near visceral effectors/targets
C.
Sacral spinal cord output
D.
Long preganglionic neurons
Question #16
A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
A.
has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
B.
releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
C.
has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
D.
is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
E.
carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
Question #17
Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?
A.
Parasympathetic
B.
Autonomic ganglia
C.
Sympathetic
D.
Somatic nervous system
E.
Craniosacral division
Question #18
Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Thoracolumbar output
B.
Ganglia primarily found in the head
C.
Short preganglionic neurons
D.
Stimulates sweat glands
Question #19
Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?
A.
Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
B.
Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors
C.
Adrenergic and somatic receptors
D.
Muscarinic and somatic receptors
E.
Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors
Question #20
Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
A.
Has myelinated axons.
B.
Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
C.
Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
D.
Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
E.
Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
Question #21
The chromaffin cells within the adrenal medulla are innervated directly by
A.
Somatic motorneurons
B.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
C.
Sympathetic preganglionic neurons
D.
Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
E.
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons
Question #22
These are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk.
A.
rami communicantes
B.
dorsal rami
C.
ventral rami
D.
superior sacral ganglion
Question #23
Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
A.
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B.
Somatosensory neurons.
C.
Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
D.
Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
E.
Somatic motor neurons
Question #24
The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
A.
muscarine and acetylcholine.
B.
norepinephrine and muscarine.
C.
somatostatin and nicotine.
D.
nicotine and adrenaline.
E.
norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
Question #25
Select the incorrect association
A.
Thermoreceptor – heat and cold
B.
Nociceptor – solute concentration
C.
Chemoreceptor – oxygen concentration
D.
Photoreceptor – light
E.
Mechanoreceptor – skeletal muscle stretch
Question #26
The _________________ tract relays sensory information about pain.
A.
Spinocerebellar
B.
Spinothalamic
C.
Corticospinal
Question #27
Monosodium glutamate would activate which taste receptors
A.
Sweet
B.
Bitter
C.
Salt
D.
Sour
E.
Umami
Question #28
Match the receptors to their correct location: Exteroceptors
A.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
B.
Skin surface
C.
Organs
Question #29
Match the receptors to their correct location: Interoceptors
A.
Skin surface
B.
Organs
C.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
Question #30
Match the receptors to their correct location: Proprioceptors
A.
Skin surface
B.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
C.
Organs
Question #31
Which central nervous system structure do most of the somatic sensory input decussate at?
A.
Spinal cord
B.
Cerebral cortex
C.
Medulla oblongata
D.
Midbrain
E.
Thalamus
Question #32
Sour taste represents stimuli caused by
A.
Sugars
B.
Alkaloids
C.
Salts
D.
Acids
E.
Bases
Question #33
Gustation and olfaction primarily involve what type of specialized receptors?
A.
Baroreceptors
B.
Chemoreceptors
C.
Thermoreceptors
D.
Mechanoreceptors
E.
Proprioreceptors
Question #34
All of the following are necessary components in the process of sensation, except for:
A.
Sensory Reception
B.
Integration of sensory input
C.
Stimulus transduction
D.
Implementation of a motor response
E.
Generation of nerve impulse
Question #35
The conversion of stimuli into neuron action potentials
A.
Stems from generation of receptor potentials
B.
All of the options are correct
C.
Is called transduction
D.
Requires an adequate level of stimulus
Question #36
Which central nervous system structure is the major sensory relay center?
A.
Spinal cord
B.
Cerebral cortex
C.
Midbrain
D.
Thalamus
E.
Medulla oblongata
Question #37
A.
All of the options listed are correct
B.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects.
C.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other.
D.
Proprioceptive sensations include static and dynamic equilibrium.
E.
Proprioceptors are also embedded in muscles and tendons
Question #38
How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?
A.
Thousands
B.
Hundreds
C.
Dozens
D.
None
E.
One
Question #39
Sound waves vibrates this structure in the ear
A.
cochlea
B.
pinna
C.
tympanic membrane
D.
vestibulocochlear nerve
E.
organ of Corti
Question #40
Visceral pain results from stimulating
A.
Pacinian corpuscles.
B.
nociceptors.
C.
proprioceptors.
D.
thermoreceptors.
E.
exteroreceptors.
Question #41
These are sensory receptors that are located in blood vessels and visceral organs and their signals are not usually consciously perceived.
A.
Interoceptors
B.
None of the answers selections are correct
C.
Nociceptors
D.
Proprioceptors
E.
Exteroreceptors
Question #42
Which of the following structures senses change in rotational acceleration of the head in order to help maintain dynamic equilibrium?
A.
semicircular canals
B.
vestibulocochlear nerve
C.
maculae of the vestibule
D.
cochlea
E.
organ of Corti
Question #43
What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the osmotic pressure of body fluids?
A.
photoreceptor
B.
chemoreceptor
C.
mechanoreceptor
D.
osmoreceptor
E.
thermoreceptor
Question #44
The process in which the frequency of nerve impulses in the first-order neuron decreases during prolonged stimulus is called
A.
transduction.
B.
selectivity.
C.
adaptation.
D.
modality
E.
perception.
Question #45
The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is
A.
absorption of light by photopigments.
B.
activation of amacrine cells.
C.
generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.
D.
absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.
Question #46
A.
contains only motor neurons.
B.
receives information from the taste buds.
C.
projects directly to the primary olfactory cortex and to the limbic system and hypothalamus.
D.
conducts impulses directly to the thalamus.
Question #47
Which of the following statements accurately describes the changes in the membrane potential of a photoreceptor cell when light rays strike its photopigments?
A.
The photoreceptor cell creates action potentials at a frequency proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus.
B.
No changes in the membrane potential occur.
C.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes hyperpolarization.
D.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes rapid depolarization.
E.
A graded potential proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus occurs in the photoreceptor cell.
Question #48
______________ is a term used to describe pain that is felt at a site remote from the place of origin.
A.
Referred pain
B.
Visceral pain
C.
Slow pain
D.
Sympathetic pain
E.
Fast pain
Question #49
Proprioception means awareness of
A.
body temperature.
B.
body position.
C.
pain.
D.
color vision.
E.
visual acuity.
Question #50
The main function of muscle spindles is
A.
to sense changes in muscle length.
B.
to perceive cutaneous sensations.
C.
to sense muscle fatigue.
D.
to sense referred pain.
Question #51
All of the following types of stimuli are sensed by free nerve endings EXCEPT
A.
itch.
B.
temperature.
C.
pressure.
D.
tickle.
E.
pain.
Question #52
Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant
A.
increases sensitivity to that odorant.
B.
does not occur.
C.
enhances gustation.
D.
occurs rapidly.
E.
occurs slowly.
Question #53
Olfactory receptors are found
A.
from the vestibule to the pharynx.
B.
only in the mid-nasal ridges.
C.
only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity.
D.
throughout the nasal cavity.
E.
only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.
Question #54
Binocular vision
A.
provides more accurate color vision.
B.
is all of these choices
C.
occurs when one eye focuses on two separate objects.
D.
is only seen in humans.
E.
gives better depth perception.
Question #55
Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A.
Calcitonin
B.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C.
Glucagon
D.
Insulin
E.
Thyroid hormone
Question #56
Which of the following situations represents negative feedback?
A.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then stimulates hormone A
B.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
C.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
D.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
E.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
Question #57
Which of the following hormones is released by the hypothalamus?
A.
Luteinizing hormone
B.
Growth hormone
C.
Follicle stimulating hormone
D.
Thyroid stimulating hormone
E.
Corticotropin releasing hormone
Question #58
Lipophilic (lipid-soluble) hormones
A.
include steroids and thyroid hormone
B.
All of these are correct answers
C.
Bind with receptors located on the cell membrane
D.
Activate second-messenger systems within their target cells
Question #59
Which of the following receptors regenerate after cell death?
A.
Gustatory receptors
B.
Gustatory and Olfactory receptors
C.
All of these receptors regenerate after cell death
D.
Olfactory receptors
E.
Photoreceptors
Question #60
All of the following hormone pairs are synergistic except for
A.
All of these are synergistic pairs
B.
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
C.
Human Growth Hormone and testosterone
D.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
E.
Follicle stimulating hormone and estrogen
Question #61
All of the following are prime examples of negative feedback loops, except for:
A.
Oxytocin
B.
Testosterone
C.
Human growth hormone
D.
Calcitonin
E.
All of these options are prime examples
Question #62
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
B.
Reduction of inflammation
C.
Glucose formation
D.
Depression of immune responses
E.
Protein and fat breakdown
Question #63
When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This is called
A.
Up-regulation
B.
Down-regulation
C.
Receptor recognition
D.
Sensory adaptation
E.
Paracrine regulation
Question #64
The endocrine cells in the adrenal medulla are primarily innervated by which branch of the nervous system?
A.
Parasympathetic
B.
Central
C.
Sympathetic
D.
Somatic
E.
Sensory
Question #65
The most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones is
A.
Chromatin
B.
Cyclic AMP
C.
Calcium
D.
Messenger RNA
E.
Plasma proteins
Question #66
Which of the following would occur within the liver in response to insulin?
A.
Calcitonin downregulation
B.
Glycogenolysis
C.
Gluconeogenesis
D.
Glycogenesis
E.
Epinephrine release
Question #67
Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell?
A.
Signals from the nervous system
B.
Chemical changes in the blood
C.
Releasing hormones.
D.
Both Signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood
E.
Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell
Question #68
Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4?
A.
Iodide trapping
B.
Coupling of T1 and T2
C.
Synthesis of calcitonin
D.
Iodination of tyrosine
E.
Oxidation of iodide
Question #69
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth?
A.
Growth hormone
B.
Prolactin
C.
Luteinizing hormone
D.
Thyrotropin
E.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Question #70
Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?
A.
Gonadotrophs
B.
Somatotrophs
C.
Corticotrophs
D.
Thyrotrophs
E.
Lactotrophs
Question #71
Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions?
A.
Potassium
B.
Calcium
C.
Manganese
D.
Sodium
E.
Chloride
Question #72
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Reduction of inflammation
B.
Protein and fat breakdown
C.
Depression of immune responses
D.
Glucose formation
E.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
Question #73
What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland?
A.
The peripheral nervous system
B.
Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
C.
Action potentials from the thalamus
D.
Muscle contraction
E.
Hormones released from the hypothalamus
Question #74
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol?
A.
Leutinizing hormone
B.
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
C.
Insulin-like growth factors
D.
Prolactin
E.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Question #75
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production?
A.
Melanocyte stimulating hormone
B.
Prolactin
C.
Luteinizing hormone
D.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
E.
Thyrotropin
Question #76
Which of the following pairs of hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
A.
Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone
B.
Prolactin and growth hormone
C.
Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin
D.
Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
E.
Prolactin and ACTH
Question #77
Which hormone effect on the muscle is correct?
A.
ADH promotes water loss.
B.
Erythropoietin blocks formation of erythrocytes.
C.
Epinephrine helps increase blood flow to exercising muscle.
D.
Calcitonin is the primary regulator of Ca2+ needed for contraction.
E.
Thyroid hormone decreases muscle mass.
Question #78
A hormone that travels through the blood vessels to distant effectors is considered
A.
paracrine.
B.
circulating hormone.
C.
autocrine.
D.
local hormone.
Question #79
How many hormones do the five types of anterior pituitary cells secrete?
A.
12
B.
7
C.
5
D.
unlimited
E.
10
Question #80
Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
A.
Regulates metabolism
B.
Produces electrolytes
C.
Controls growth and development
D.
Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
Question #81
When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, it is called a(n)
A.
circulating effect.
B.
antagonistic effect.
C.
synergistic effect.
D.
local effect.
E.
permissive effect.
Question #82
Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells?
A.
Thyroid hormones
B.
Insulin
C.
Glucagon
D.
Calcitonin
E.
Somatostatin
Question #83
Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol?
A.
Steroids
B.
Nitric oxide
C.
Amine hormones
D.
Thyroid hormones
E.
Peptide hormones
Question #84
Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
A.
Increased breakdown of proteins
B.
Increased digestive activities
C.
Increased lipolysis
D.
Increased glycogenesis
E.
Increased gluconeogenesis
Question #85
What is the result of decreased secretion of aldosterone?
A.
Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain
B.
Decreased heart rate
C.
Metabolic acidosis
D.
Dehydration
E.
Decreased airway dilation
Need help with your exam preparation?
Get Answers to this exam for $6 USD.
Get Answers to all exams in [ Physiology 101 - Introduction to Human Physiology ] course for $25 USD.
Existing Quiz Clients Login here