Physiology 101 - Introduction to Human Physiology » Fall 2021 » Exam 2
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Question #1
What is characteristic of fast pain?
A.
Persists for a long time
B.
Poorly localized
C.
Impulses carried along myelinated fibers
D.
Propagate along small-diameter fibers
Question #2
Which of these spinal motor reflexes has a monosynaptic component?
A.
Visceral
B.
Withdrawal
C.
Stretch
D.
Blinking
E.
Flexor
Question #3
Which of the following parts of a reflex arc receives sensory information and decides how to respond to a change in the body’s condition?
A.
Integration center
B.
Effector
C.
Motor neuron
D.
Sensory neuron
E.
Sensory receptor
Question #4
In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
B.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
C.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
D.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
Question #5
In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
B.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
C.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
D.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
Question #6
Which of the following options is not correct? Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activity by
A.
increasing the size of the action potential between neurons
B.
increasing activity in the effector
C.
All of these options are correct
D.
decreasing activity in the effector
Question #7
Autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling
A.
Skeletal muscle
B.
Endocrine glands
C.
Cardiac muscle
D.
Exocrine glands
E.
Smooth muscle
Question #8
In the flexor withdrawal reflex (pain = stubbing of the toe), which muscle is activated as part of the contralateral response?
A.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the opposite leg
B.
Quadriceps, same leg as stimulus
C.
Quadriceps, opposite leg of stimulus
D.
Hamstring, opposite leg of stimulus
E.
Hamstring, same leg as stimulus
F.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the same leg
Question #9
If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve was cut; there would be a loss on one side of _________________ at that level
A.
Both sensation and voluntary movement
B.
Voluntary movement
C.
Intelligence
D.
Sensation
E.
Blood
Question #10
Spinocerebellar pathway would be responsible for all of the following except:
A.
Balance
B.
All of the following are functions of the spinocerebellar pathway
C.
Posture
D.
Emotion
E.
Coordination
Question #11
Somatic reflex and autonomic reflex differ based on their effectors. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _______, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _______________.
A.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
B.
glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle
C.
skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
D.
striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands
E.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only
Question #12
All of the following are immediate physiological responses to sympathetic dominance except:
A.
Pupil dilation
B.
Elevated heart rate
C.
Elevated blood pressure
D.
All of these options are immediate sympathetic responses
E.
High levels of cortisol
Question #13
Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division?
A.
Airway constriction
B.
Increased blood glucose level
C.
Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat
D.
Increased heart rate
E.
Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tract
Question #14
Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation?
A.
integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector
B.
effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor
C.
receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector
D.
receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector
E.
receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center
Question #15
Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Sacral spinal cord output
B.
Long preganglionic neurons
C.
Ganglia found near visceral effectors/targets
D.
Synapses with sweat glands in skin
Question #16
A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
A.
is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
B.
has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
C.
has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
D.
carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
E.
releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
Question #17
Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?
A.
Autonomic ganglia
B.
Somatic nervous system
C.
Sympathetic
D.
Craniosacral division
E.
Parasympathetic
Question #18
Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Short preganglionic neurons
B.
Stimulates sweat glands
C.
Ganglia primarily found in the head
D.
Thoracolumbar output
Question #19
Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?
A.
Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors
B.
Muscarinic and somatic receptors
C.
Adrenergic and somatic receptors
D.
Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors
E.
Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
Question #20
Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
A.
Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
B.
Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
C.
Has myelinated axons.
D.
Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
E.
Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
Question #21
The chromaffin cells within the adrenal medulla are innervated directly by
A.
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons
B.
Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
C.
Somatic motorneurons
D.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
E.
Sympathetic preganglionic neurons
Question #22
These are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk.
A.
ventral rami
B.
dorsal rami
C.
rami communicantes
D.
superior sacral ganglion
Question #23
Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
A.
Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
B.
Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C.
Somatic motor neurons
D.
Somatosensory neurons.
E.
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
Question #24
The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
A.
norepinephrine and muscarine.
B.
norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
C.
nicotine and adrenaline.
D.
muscarine and acetylcholine.
E.
somatostatin and nicotine.
Question #25
Select the incorrect association
A.
Chemoreceptor – oxygen concentration
B.
Nociceptor – solute concentration
C.
Photoreceptor – light
D.
Thermoreceptor – heat and cold
E.
Mechanoreceptor – skeletal muscle stretch
Question #26
The _________________ tract relays sensory information about pain.
A.
Spinothalamic
B.
Corticospinal
C.
Spinocerebellar
Question #27
Monosodium glutamate would activate which taste receptors
A.
Bitter
B.
Salt
C.
Sour
D.
Sweet
E.
Umami
Question #28
Match the receptors to their correct location: Exteroceptors
A.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
B.
Skin surface
C.
Organs
Question #29
Match the receptors to their correct location: Interoceptors
A.
Skin surface
B.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
C.
Organs
Question #30
Match the receptors to their correct location: Proprioceptors
A.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
B.
Organs
C.
Skin surface
Question #31
Which central nervous system structure do most of the somatic sensory input decussate at?
A.
Spinal cord
B.
Medulla oblongata
C.
Midbrain
D.
Thalamus
E.
Cerebral cortex
Question #32
Sour taste represents stimuli caused by
A.
Salts
B.
Bases
C.
Alkaloids
D.
Acids
E.
Sugars
Question #33
Gustation and olfaction primarily involve what type of specialized receptors?
A.
Baroreceptors
B.
Mechanoreceptors
C.
Proprioreceptors
D.
Chemoreceptors
E.
Thermoreceptors
Question #34
All of the following are necessary components in the process of sensation, except for:
A.
Sensory Reception
B.
Generation of nerve impulse
C.
Implementation of a motor response
D.
Integration of sensory input
E.
Stimulus transduction
Question #35
The conversion of stimuli into neuron action potentials
A.
All of the options are correct
B.
Requires an adequate level of stimulus
C.
Is called transduction
D.
Stems from generation of receptor potentials
Question #36
Which central nervous system structure is the major sensory relay center?
A.
Medulla oblongata
B.
Midbrain
C.
Thalamus
D.
Cerebral cortex
E.
Spinal cord
Question #37
Which of the following statements about proprioception is incorrect?
A.
Proprioceptors are also embedded in muscles and tendons
B.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other.
C.
Proprioceptive sensations include static and dynamic equilibrium.
D.
All of the options listed are correct
E.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects.
Question #38
How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?
A.
Dozens
B.
Thousands
C.
One
D.
Hundreds
E.
None
Question #39
Sound waves vibrates this structure in the ear
A.
tympanic membrane
B.
pinna
C.
organ of Corti
D.
cochlea
E.
vestibulocochlear nerve
Question #40
Visceral pain results from stimulating
A.
Pacinian corpuscles.
B.
thermoreceptors.
C.
nociceptors.
D.
proprioceptors.
E.
exteroreceptors.
Question #41
These are sensory receptors that are located in blood vessels and visceral organs and their signals are not usually consciously perceived.
A.
None of the answers selections are correct
B.
Interoceptors
C.
Exteroreceptors
D.
Nociceptors
E.
Proprioceptors
Question #42
Which of the following structures senses change in rotational acceleration of the head in order to help maintain dynamic equilibrium?
A.
vestibulocochlear nerve
B.
maculae of the vestibule
C.
cochlea
D.
semicircular canals
E.
organ of Corti
Question #43
What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the osmotic pressure of body fluids?
A.
thermoreceptor
B.
chemoreceptor
C.
osmoreceptor
D.
photoreceptor
E.
mechanoreceptor
Question #44
The process in which the frequency of nerve impulses in the first-order neuron decreases during prolonged stimulus is called
A.
perception.
B.
selectivity.
C.
adaptation.
D.
modality
E.
transduction.
Question #45
The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is
A.
absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.
B.
activation of amacrine cells.
C.
absorption of light by photopigments.
D.
generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.
Question #46
The olfactory tract
A.
contains only motor neurons.
B.
conducts impulses directly to the thalamus.
C.
projects directly to the primary olfactory cortex and to the limbic system and hypothalamus.
D.
receives information from the taste buds.
Question #47
Which of the following statements accurately describes the changes in the membrane potential of a photoreceptor cell when light rays strike its photopigments?
A.
A graded potential proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus occurs in the photoreceptor cell.
B.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes rapid depolarization.
C.
The photoreceptor cell creates action potentials at a frequency proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus.
D.
No changes in the membrane potential occur.
E.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes hyperpolarization.
Question #48
______________ is a term used to describe pain that is felt at a site remote from the place of origin.
A.
Fast pain
B.
Sympathetic pain
C.
Visceral pain
D.
Slow pain
E.
Referred pain
Question #49
Proprioception means awareness of
A.
pain.
B.
visual acuity.
C.
color vision.
D.
body temperature.
E.
body position.
Question #50
The main function of muscle spindles is
A.
to sense referred pain.
B.
to sense muscle fatigue.
C.
to sense changes in muscle length.
D.
to perceive cutaneous sensations.
Question #51
All of the following types of stimuli are sensed by free nerve endings EXCEPT
A.
temperature.
B.
pressure.
C.
itch.
D.
pain.
E.
tickle.
Question #52
Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant
A.
increases sensitivity to that odorant.
B.
does not occur.
C.
occurs slowly.
D.
occurs rapidly.
E.
enhances gustation.
Question #53
Olfactory receptors are found
A.
from the vestibule to the pharynx.
B.
throughout the nasal cavity.
C.
only in the mid-nasal ridges.
D.
only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.
E.
only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity.
Question #54
Binocular vision
A.
is only seen in humans.
B.
provides more accurate color vision.
C.
gives better depth perception.
D.
is all of these choices
E.
occurs when one eye focuses on two separate objects.
Question #55
Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A.
Glucagon
B.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C.
Insulin
D.
Thyroid hormone
E.
Calcitonin
Question #56
Which of the following situations represents negative feedback?
A.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
B.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
C.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then stimulates hormone A
D.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
E.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
Question #57
Which of the following hormones is released by the hypothalamus?
A.
Growth hormone
B.
Corticotropin releasing hormone
C.
Thyroid stimulating hormone
D.
Luteinizing hormone
E.
Follicle stimulating hormone
Question #58
Lipophilic (lipid-soluble) hormones
A.
All of these are correct answers
B.
Activate second-messenger systems within their target cells
C.
include steroids and thyroid hormone
D.
Bind with receptors located on the cell membrane
Question #59
Which of the following receptors regenerate after cell death?
A.
Gustatory receptors
B.
Olfactory receptors
C.
Gustatory and Olfactory receptors
D.
All of these receptors regenerate after cell death
E.
Photoreceptors
Question #60
All of the following hormone pairs are synergistic except for
A.
All of these are synergistic pairs
B.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C.
Human Growth Hormone and testosterone
D.
Follicle stimulating hormone and estrogen
E.
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
Question #61
All of the following are prime examples of negative feedback loops, except for:
A.
Calcitonin
B.
All of these options are prime examples
C.
Oxytocin
D.
Human growth hormone
E.
Testosterone
Question #62
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Protein and fat breakdown
B.
Reduction of inflammation
C.
Glucose formation
D.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
E.
Depression of immune responses
Question #63
When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This is called
A.
Up-regulation
B.
Sensory adaptation
C.
Paracrine regulation
D.
Receptor recognition
E.
Down-regulation
Question #64
The endocrine cells in the adrenal medulla are primarily innervated by which branch of the nervous system?
A.
Sensory
B.
Somatic
C.
Central
D.
Sympathetic
E.
Parasympathetic
Question #65
The most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones is
A.
Plasma proteins
B.
Messenger RNA
C.
Chromatin
D.
Calcium
E.
Cyclic AMP
Question #66
Which of the following would occur within the liver in response to insulin?
A.
Calcitonin downregulation
B.
Glycogenolysis
C.
Glycogenesis
D.
Gluconeogenesis
E.
Epinephrine release
Question #67
Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell?
A.
Chemical changes in the blood
B.
Signals from the nervous system
C.
Releasing hormones.
D.
Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell
E.
Both Signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood
Question #68
Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4?
A.
Coupling of T1 and T2
B.
Oxidation of iodide
C.
Synthesis of calcitonin
D.
Iodide trapping
E.
Iodination of tyrosine
Question #69
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth?
A.
Growth hormone
B.
Thyrotropin
C.
Prolactin
D.
Luteinizing hormone
E.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Question #70
Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?
A.
Lactotrophs
B.
Somatotrophs
C.
Thyrotrophs
D.
Corticotrophs
E.
Gonadotrophs
Question #71
Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions?
A.
Manganese
B.
Chloride
C.
Sodium
D.
Potassium
E.
Calcium
Question #72
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
B.
Glucose formation
C.
Depression of immune responses
D.
Reduction of inflammation
E.
Protein and fat breakdown
Question #73
What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland?
A.
The peripheral nervous system
B.
Hormones released from the hypothalamus
C.
Muscle contraction
D.
Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
E.
Action potentials from the thalamus
Question #74
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol?
A.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
B.
Leutinizing hormone
C.
Insulin-like growth factors
D.
Prolactin
E.
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
Question #75
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production?
A.
Melanocyte stimulating hormone
B.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C.
Luteinizing hormone
D.
Thyrotropin
E.
Prolactin
Question #76
Which of the following pairs of hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
A.
Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin
B.
Prolactin and ACTH
C.
Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone
D.
Prolactin and growth hormone
E.
Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
Question #77
Which hormone effect on the muscle is correct?
A.
Thyroid hormone decreases muscle mass.
B.
Calcitonin is the primary regulator of Ca2+ needed for contraction.
C.
Erythropoietin blocks formation of erythrocytes.
D.
ADH promotes water loss.
E.
Epinephrine helps increase blood flow to exercising muscle.
Question #78
A hormone that travels through the blood vessels to distant effectors is considered
A.
circulating hormone.
B.
local hormone.
C.
paracrine.
D.
autocrine.
Question #79
How many hormones do the five types of anterior pituitary cells secrete?
A.
5
B.
12
C.
10
D.
unlimited
E.
7
Question #80
Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
A.
Controls growth and development
B.
Produces electrolytes
C.
Regulates metabolism
D.
Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
Question #81
When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, it is called a(n)
A.
antagonistic effect.
B.
circulating effect.
C.
permissive effect.
D.
synergistic effect.
E.
local effect.
Question #82
Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells?
A.
Glucagon
B.
Thyroid hormones
C.
Somatostatin
D.
Calcitonin
E.
Insulin
Question #83
Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol?
A.
Peptide hormones
B.
Thyroid hormones
C.
Nitric oxide
D.
Steroids
E.
Amine hormones
Question #84
Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
A.
Increased gluconeogenesis
B.
Increased digestive activities
C.
Increased glycogenesis
D.
Increased lipolysis
E.
Increased breakdown of proteins
Question #85
What is the result of decreased secretion of aldosterone?
A.
Dehydration
B.
Metabolic acidosis
C.
Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain
D.
Decreased heart rate
E.
Decreased airway dilation
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