Physiology 101 - Introduction to Human Physiology » Fall 2021 » Exam 2
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Question #1
What is characteristic of fast pain?
A.
Persists for a long time
B.
Propagate along small-diameter fibers
C.
Poorly localized
D.
Impulses carried along myelinated fibers
Question #2
Which of these spinal motor reflexes has a monosynaptic component?
A.
Visceral
B.
Withdrawal
C.
Blinking
D.
Flexor
E.
Stretch
Question #3
Which of the following parts of a reflex arc receives sensory information and decides how to respond to a change in the body’s condition?
A.
Effector
B.
Motor neuron
C.
Sensory receptor
D.
Sensory neuron
E.
Integration center
Question #4
In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
B.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
C.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
D.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
Question #5
In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
B.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
C.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
D.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
Question #6
Which of the following options is not correct? Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activity by
A.
increasing the size of the action potential between neurons
B.
All of these options are correct
C.
increasing activity in the effector
D.
decreasing activity in the effector
Question #7
Autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling
A.
Skeletal muscle
B.
Endocrine glands
C.
Exocrine glands
D.
Cardiac muscle
E.
Smooth muscle
Question #8
In the flexor withdrawal reflex (pain = stubbing of the toe), which muscle is activated as part of the contralateral response?
A.
Hamstring, opposite leg of stimulus
B.
Quadriceps, same leg as stimulus
C.
Hamstring, same leg as stimulus
D.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the same leg
E.
Quadriceps, opposite leg of stimulus
F.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the opposite leg
Question #9
If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve was cut; there would be a loss on one side of _________________ at that level
A.
Voluntary movement
B.
Intelligence
C.
Sensation
D.
Blood
E.
Both sensation and voluntary movement
Question #10
Spinocerebellar pathway would be responsible for all of the following except:
A.
Posture
B.
Emotion
C.
Balance
D.
Coordination
E.
All of the following are functions of the spinocerebellar pathway
Question #11
Somatic reflex and autonomic reflex differ based on their effectors. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _______, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _______________.
A.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
B.
skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
C.
striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands
D.
glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle
E.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only
Question #12
All of the following are immediate physiological responses to sympathetic dominance except:
A.
All of these options are immediate sympathetic responses
B.
Elevated heart rate
C.
Elevated blood pressure
D.
High levels of cortisol
E.
Pupil dilation
Question #13
Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division?
A.
Airway constriction
B.
Increased blood glucose level
C.
Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tract
D.
Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat
E.
Increased heart rate
Question #14
Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation?
A.
integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector
B.
receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector
C.
effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor
D.
receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector
E.
receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center
Question #15
Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Sacral spinal cord output
B.
Ganglia found near visceral effectors/targets
C.
Long preganglionic neurons
D.
Synapses with sweat glands in skin
Question #16
A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
A.
carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
B.
is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
C.
releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
D.
has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
E.
has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
Question #17
Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?
A.
Craniosacral division
B.
Sympathetic
C.
Somatic nervous system
D.
Parasympathetic
E.
Autonomic ganglia
Question #18
Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Ganglia primarily found in the head
B.
Stimulates sweat glands
C.
Short preganglionic neurons
D.
Thoracolumbar output
Question #19
Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?
A.
Adrenergic and somatic receptors
B.
Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors
C.
Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors
D.
Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
E.
Muscarinic and somatic receptors
Question #20
Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
A.
Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
B.
Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
C.
Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
D.
Has myelinated axons.
E.
Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
Question #21
The chromaffin cells within the adrenal medulla are innervated directly by
A.
Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
B.
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons
C.
Somatic motorneurons
D.
Sympathetic preganglionic neurons
E.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
Question #22
These are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk.
A.
ventral rami
B.
superior sacral ganglion
C.
dorsal rami
D.
rami communicantes
Question #23
Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
A.
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B.
Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C.
Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
D.
Somatic motor neurons
E.
Somatosensory neurons.
Question #24
The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
A.
muscarine and acetylcholine.
B.
somatostatin and nicotine.
C.
nicotine and adrenaline.
D.
norepinephrine and muscarine.
E.
norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
Question #25
Select the incorrect association
A.
Chemoreceptor – oxygen concentration
B.
Thermoreceptor – heat and cold
C.
Photoreceptor – light
D.
Nociceptor – solute concentration
E.
Mechanoreceptor – skeletal muscle stretch
Question #26
The _________________ tract relays sensory information about pain.
A.
Corticospinal
B.
Spinocerebellar
C.
Spinothalamic
Question #27
Monosodium glutamate would activate which taste receptors
A.
Salt
B.
Sour
C.
Umami
D.
Bitter
E.
Sweet
Question #28
Match the receptors to their correct location: Exteroceptors
A.
Skin surface
B.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
C.
Organs
Question #29
Match the receptors to their correct location: Interoceptors
A.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
B.
Skin surface
C.
Organs
Question #30
Match the receptors to their correct location: Proprioceptors
A.
Organs
B.
Skin surface
C.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
Question #31
Which central nervous system structure do most of the somatic sensory input decussate at?
A.
Cerebral cortex
B.
Thalamus
C.
Midbrain
D.
Medulla oblongata
E.
Spinal cord
Question #32
Sour taste represents stimuli caused by
A.
Acids
B.
Alkaloids
C.
Sugars
D.
Salts
E.
Bases
Question #33
Gustation and olfaction primarily involve what type of specialized receptors?
A.
Baroreceptors
B.
Thermoreceptors
C.
Proprioreceptors
D.
Chemoreceptors
E.
Mechanoreceptors
Question #34
All of the following are necessary components in the process of sensation, except for:
A.
Generation of nerve impulse
B.
Sensory Reception
C.
Stimulus transduction
D.
Integration of sensory input
E.
Implementation of a motor response
Question #35
The conversion of stimuli into neuron action potentials
A.
All of the options are correct
B.
Is called transduction
C.
Stems from generation of receptor potentials
D.
Requires an adequate level of stimulus
Question #36
Which central nervous system structure is the major sensory relay center?
A.
Thalamus
B.
Midbrain
C.
Medulla oblongata
D.
Spinal cord
E.
Cerebral cortex
Question #37
Which of the following statements about proprioception is incorrect?
A.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects.
B.
Proprioceptors are also embedded in muscles and tendons
C.
All of the options listed are correct
D.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other.
E.
Proprioceptive sensations include static and dynamic equilibrium.
Question #38
How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?
A.
Thousands
B.
One
C.
None
D.
Dozens
E.
Hundreds
Question #39
Sound waves vibrates this structure in the ear
A.
organ of Corti
B.
vestibulocochlear nerve
C.
cochlea
D.
pinna
E.
tympanic membrane
Question #40
Visceral pain results from stimulating
A.
exteroreceptors.
B.
nociceptors.
C.
Pacinian corpuscles.
D.
thermoreceptors.
E.
proprioceptors.
Question #41
These are sensory receptors that are located in blood vessels and visceral organs and their signals are not usually consciously perceived.
A.
Exteroreceptors
B.
Nociceptors
C.
None of the answers selections are correct
D.
Interoceptors
E.
Proprioceptors
Question #42
Which of the following structures senses change in rotational acceleration of the head in order to help maintain dynamic equilibrium?
A.
vestibulocochlear nerve
B.
maculae of the vestibule
C.
cochlea
D.
semicircular canals
E.
organ of Corti
Question #43
What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the osmotic pressure of body fluids?
A.
thermoreceptor
B.
chemoreceptor
C.
osmoreceptor
D.
photoreceptor
E.
mechanoreceptor
Question #44
The process in which the frequency of nerve impulses in the first-order neuron decreases during prolonged stimulus is called
A.
adaptation.
B.
perception.
C.
modality
D.
selectivity.
E.
transduction.
Question #45
The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is
A.
absorption of light by photopigments.
B.
activation of amacrine cells.
C.
generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.
D.
absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.
Question #46
The olfactory tract
A.
conducts impulses directly to the thalamus.
B.
projects directly to the primary olfactory cortex and to the limbic system and hypothalamus.
C.
receives information from the taste buds.
D.
contains only motor neurons.
Question #47
Which of the following statements accurately describes the changes in the membrane potential of a photoreceptor cell when light rays strike its photopigments?
A.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes hyperpolarization.
B.
The photoreceptor cell creates action potentials at a frequency proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus.
C.
A graded potential proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus occurs in the photoreceptor cell.
D.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes rapid depolarization.
E.
No changes in the membrane potential occur.
Question #48
______________ is a term used to describe pain that is felt at a site remote from the place of origin.
A.
Fast pain
B.
Sympathetic pain
C.
Visceral pain
D.
Slow pain
E.
Referred pain
Question #49
Proprioception means awareness of
A.
body position.
B.
visual acuity.
C.
pain.
D.
color vision.
E.
body temperature.
Question #50
The main function of muscle spindles is
A.
to sense changes in muscle length.
B.
to perceive cutaneous sensations.
C.
to sense muscle fatigue.
D.
to sense referred pain.
Question #51
All of the following types of stimuli are sensed by free nerve endings EXCEPT
A.
pain.
B.
temperature.
C.
pressure.
D.
itch.
E.
tickle.
Question #52
Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant
A.
increases sensitivity to that odorant.
B.
occurs slowly.
C.
occurs rapidly.
D.
enhances gustation.
E.
does not occur.
Question #53
Olfactory receptors are found
A.
only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity.
B.
only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.
C.
throughout the nasal cavity.
D.
only in the mid-nasal ridges.
E.
from the vestibule to the pharynx.
Question #54
Binocular vision
A.
gives better depth perception.
B.
occurs when one eye focuses on two separate objects.
C.
provides more accurate color vision.
D.
is all of these choices
E.
is only seen in humans.
Question #55
Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A.
Calcitonin
B.
Glucagon
C.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D.
Thyroid hormone
E.
Insulin
Question #56
Which of the following situations represents negative feedback?
A.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
B.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
C.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
D.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then stimulates hormone A
E.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
Question #57
Which of the following hormones is released by the hypothalamus?
A.
Luteinizing hormone
B.
Corticotropin releasing hormone
C.
Follicle stimulating hormone
D.
Thyroid stimulating hormone
E.
Growth hormone
Question #58
Lipophilic (lipid-soluble) hormones
A.
Bind with receptors located on the cell membrane
B.
All of these are correct answers
C.
Activate second-messenger systems within their target cells
D.
include steroids and thyroid hormone
Question #59
Which of the following receptors regenerate after cell death?
A.
Gustatory receptors
B.
All of these receptors regenerate after cell death
C.
Gustatory and Olfactory receptors
D.
Photoreceptors
E.
Olfactory receptors
Question #60
All of the following hormone pairs are synergistic except for
A.
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
B.
Human Growth Hormone and testosterone
C.
Follicle stimulating hormone and estrogen
D.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
E.
All of these are synergistic pairs
Question #61
All of the following are prime examples of negative feedback loops, except for:
A.
Calcitonin
B.
All of these options are prime examples
C.
Human growth hormone
D.
Oxytocin
E.
Testosterone
Question #62
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
B.
Depression of immune responses
C.
Reduction of inflammation
D.
Protein and fat breakdown
E.
Glucose formation
Question #63
When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This is called
A.
Down-regulation
B.
Paracrine regulation
C.
Receptor recognition
D.
Sensory adaptation
E.
Up-regulation
Question #64
The endocrine cells in the adrenal medulla are primarily innervated by which branch of the nervous system?
A.
Central
B.
Sympathetic
C.
Somatic
D.
Parasympathetic
E.
Sensory
Question #65
The most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones is
A.
Messenger RNA
B.
Cyclic AMP
C.
Plasma proteins
D.
Calcium
E.
Chromatin
Question #66
Which of the following would occur within the liver in response to insulin?
A.
Epinephrine release
B.
Gluconeogenesis
C.
Calcitonin downregulation
D.
Glycogenolysis
E.
Glycogenesis
Question #67
Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell?
A.
Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell
B.
Releasing hormones.
C.
Both Signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood
D.
Chemical changes in the blood
E.
Signals from the nervous system
Question #68
Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4?
A.
Oxidation of iodide
B.
Iodination of tyrosine
C.
Coupling of T1 and T2
D.
Synthesis of calcitonin
E.
Iodide trapping
Question #69
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth?
A.
Luteinizing hormone
B.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C.
Prolactin
D.
Growth hormone
E.
Thyrotropin
Question #70
Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?
A.
Lactotrophs
B.
Somatotrophs
C.
Corticotrophs
D.
Gonadotrophs
E.
Thyrotrophs
Question #71
Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions?
A.
Calcium
B.
Chloride
C.
Potassium
D.
Manganese
E.
Sodium
Question #72
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Depression of immune responses
B.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
C.
Glucose formation
D.
Protein and fat breakdown
E.
Reduction of inflammation
Question #73
What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland?
A.
The peripheral nervous system
B.
Hormones released from the hypothalamus
C.
Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
D.
Action potentials from the thalamus
E.
Muscle contraction
Question #74
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol?
A.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
B.
Prolactin
C.
Leutinizing hormone
D.
Insulin-like growth factors
E.
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
Question #75
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production?
A.
Prolactin
B.
Thyrotropin
C.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D.
Luteinizing hormone
E.
Melanocyte stimulating hormone
Question #76
Which of the following pairs of hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
A.
Prolactin and growth hormone
B.
Prolactin and ACTH
C.
Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
D.
Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone
E.
Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin
Question #77
Which hormone effect on the muscle is correct?
A.
ADH promotes water loss.
B.
Calcitonin is the primary regulator of Ca2+ needed for contraction.
C.
Epinephrine helps increase blood flow to exercising muscle.
D.
Thyroid hormone decreases muscle mass.
E.
Erythropoietin blocks formation of erythrocytes.
Question #78
A hormone that travels through the blood vessels to distant effectors is considered
A.
autocrine.
B.
circulating hormone.
C.
paracrine.
D.
local hormone.
Question #79
How many hormones do the five types of anterior pituitary cells secrete?
A.
unlimited
B.
7
C.
10
D.
12
E.
5
Question #80
Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
A.
Produces electrolytes
B.
Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
C.
Controls growth and development
D.
Regulates metabolism
Question #81
When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, it is called a(n)
A.
antagonistic effect.
B.
circulating effect.
C.
local effect.
D.
synergistic effect.
E.
permissive effect.
Question #82
Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells?
A.
Thyroid hormones
B.
Insulin
C.
Somatostatin
D.
Glucagon
E.
Calcitonin
Question #83
Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol?
A.
Nitric oxide
B.
Steroids
C.
Amine hormones
D.
Peptide hormones
E.
Thyroid hormones
Question #84
Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
A.
Increased gluconeogenesis
B.
Increased breakdown of proteins
C.
Increased digestive activities
D.
Increased glycogenesis
E.
Increased lipolysis
Question #85
What is the result of decreased secretion of aldosterone?
A.
Dehydration
B.
Decreased airway dilation
C.
Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain
D.
Metabolic acidosis
E.
Decreased heart rate
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