Physiology 101 - Introduction to Human Physiology » Fall 2021 » Exam 2
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Question #1
What is characteristic of fast pain?
A.
Propagate along small-diameter fibers
B.
Persists for a long time
C.
Poorly localized
D.
Impulses carried along myelinated fibers
Question #2
Which of these spinal motor reflexes has a monosynaptic component?
A.
Stretch
B.
Blinking
C.
Withdrawal
D.
Visceral
E.
Flexor
Question #3
Which of the following parts of a reflex arc receives sensory information and decides how to respond to a change in the body’s condition?
A.
Sensory receptor
B.
Effector
C.
Integration center
D.
Sensory neuron
E.
Motor neuron
Question #4
In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
B.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
C.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
D.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
Question #5
In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
A.
Contraction of the antagonist muscle and relaxation of agonist muscle
B.
Contraction of the agonist muscle and relaxation of the antagonist muscle
C.
Relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
D.
Contraction of both agonist and antagonist muscles
Question #6
Which of the following options is not correct? Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activity by
A.
All of these options are correct
B.
increasing the size of the action potential between neurons
C.
decreasing activity in the effector
D.
increasing activity in the effector
Question #7
Autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling
A.
Endocrine glands
B.
Smooth muscle
C.
Skeletal muscle
D.
Cardiac muscle
E.
Exocrine glands
Question #8
In the flexor withdrawal reflex (pain = stubbing of the toe), which muscle is activated as part of the contralateral response?
A.
Quadriceps, opposite leg of stimulus
B.
Quadriceps, same leg as stimulus
C.
Hamstring, same leg as stimulus
D.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the opposite leg
E.
Quadriceps and Hamstring of the same leg
F.
Hamstring, opposite leg of stimulus
Question #9
If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve was cut; there would be a loss on one side of _________________ at that level
A.
Blood
B.
Intelligence
C.
Sensation
D.
Both sensation and voluntary movement
E.
Voluntary movement
Question #10
Spinocerebellar pathway would be responsible for all of the following except:
A.
Coordination
B.
Balance
C.
Emotion
D.
Posture
E.
All of the following are functions of the spinocerebellar pathway
Question #11
Somatic reflex and autonomic reflex differ based on their effectors. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _______, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _______________.
A.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only
B.
glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle
C.
skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
D.
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
E.
striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands
Question #12
All of the following are immediate physiological responses to sympathetic dominance except:
A.
Pupil dilation
B.
Elevated heart rate
C.
High levels of cortisol
D.
All of these options are immediate sympathetic responses
E.
Elevated blood pressure
Question #13
Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division?
A.
Increased heart rate
B.
Increased blood glucose level
C.
Airway constriction
D.
Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tract
E.
Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat
Question #14
Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation?
A.
receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center
B.
integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector
C.
effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor
D.
receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector
E.
receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector
Question #15
Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Synapses with sweat glands in skin
B.
Ganglia found near visceral effectors/targets
C.
Sacral spinal cord output
D.
Long preganglionic neurons
Question #16
A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
A.
has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
B.
carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
C.
has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
D.
releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
E.
is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
Question #17
Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?
A.
Parasympathetic
B.
Craniosacral division
C.
Sympathetic
D.
Somatic nervous system
E.
Autonomic ganglia
Question #18
Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?
A.
Thoracolumbar output
B.
Stimulates sweat glands
C.
Ganglia primarily found in the head
D.
Short preganglionic neurons
Question #19
Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?
A.
Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
B.
Adrenergic and somatic receptors
C.
Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors
D.
Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors
E.
Muscarinic and somatic receptors
Question #20
Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
A.
Has myelinated axons.
B.
Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
C.
Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
D.
Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
E.
Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
Question #21
The chromaffin cells within the adrenal medulla are innervated directly by
A.
Somatic motorneurons
B.
Sympathetic preganglionic neurons
C.
Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
D.
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons
E.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
Question #22
These are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk.
A.
dorsal rami
B.
ventral rami
C.
rami communicantes
D.
superior sacral ganglion
Question #23
Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
A.
Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B.
Somatic motor neurons
C.
Somatosensory neurons.
D.
Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
E.
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
Question #24
The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
A.
nicotine and adrenaline.
B.
muscarine and acetylcholine.
C.
norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
D.
somatostatin and nicotine.
E.
norepinephrine and muscarine.
Question #25
Select the incorrect association
A.
Thermoreceptor – heat and cold
B.
Nociceptor – solute concentration
C.
Photoreceptor – light
D.
Mechanoreceptor – skeletal muscle stretch
E.
Chemoreceptor – oxygen concentration
Question #26
The _________________ tract relays sensory information about pain.
A.
Spinothalamic
B.
Spinocerebellar
C.
Corticospinal
Question #27
Monosodium glutamate would activate which taste receptors
A.
Bitter
B.
Umami
C.
Salt
D.
Sweet
E.
Sour
Question #28
Match the receptors to their correct location: Exteroceptors
A.
Skin surface
B.
Organs
C.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
Question #29
Match the receptors to their correct location: Interoceptors
A.
Skin surface
B.
Organs
C.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
Question #30
Match the receptors to their correct location: Proprioceptors
A.
Inner ear / Vestibular apparatus
B.
Organs
C.
Skin surface
Question #31
Which central nervous system structure do most of the somatic sensory input decussate at?
A.
Cerebral cortex
B.
Medulla oblongata
C.
Midbrain
D.
Spinal cord
E.
Thalamus
Question #32
Sour taste represents stimuli caused by
A.
Sugars
B.
Salts
C.
Alkaloids
D.
Acids
E.
Bases
Question #33
Gustation and olfaction primarily involve what type of specialized receptors?
A.
Mechanoreceptors
B.
Chemoreceptors
C.
Proprioreceptors
D.
Baroreceptors
E.
Thermoreceptors
Question #34
All of the following are necessary components in the process of sensation, except for:
A.
Implementation of a motor response
B.
Generation of nerve impulse
C.
Integration of sensory input
D.
Sensory Reception
E.
Stimulus transduction
Question #35
The conversion of stimuli into neuron action potentials
A.
Stems from generation of receptor potentials
B.
Is called transduction
C.
All of the options are correct
D.
Requires an adequate level of stimulus
Question #36
Which central nervous system structure is the major sensory relay center?
A.
Midbrain
B.
Medulla oblongata
C.
Spinal cord
D.
Thalamus
E.
Cerebral cortex
Question #37
A.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects.
B.
Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other.
C.
Proprioceptors are also embedded in muscles and tendons
D.
Proprioceptive sensations include static and dynamic equilibrium.
E.
All of the options listed are correct
Question #38
How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?
A.
Thousands
B.
None
C.
Hundreds
D.
One
E.
Dozens
Question #39
Sound waves vibrates this structure in the ear
A.
tympanic membrane
B.
pinna
C.
vestibulocochlear nerve
D.
organ of Corti
E.
cochlea
Question #40
Visceral pain results from stimulating
A.
Pacinian corpuscles.
B.
exteroreceptors.
C.
proprioceptors.
D.
nociceptors.
E.
thermoreceptors.
Question #41
These are sensory receptors that are located in blood vessels and visceral organs and their signals are not usually consciously perceived.
A.
Nociceptors
B.
Interoceptors
C.
None of the answers selections are correct
D.
Proprioceptors
E.
Exteroreceptors
Question #42
Which of the following structures senses change in rotational acceleration of the head in order to help maintain dynamic equilibrium?
A.
organ of Corti
B.
cochlea
C.
semicircular canals
D.
maculae of the vestibule
E.
vestibulocochlear nerve
Question #43
What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the osmotic pressure of body fluids?
A.
osmoreceptor
B.
photoreceptor
C.
chemoreceptor
D.
thermoreceptor
E.
mechanoreceptor
Question #44
The process in which the frequency of nerve impulses in the first-order neuron decreases during prolonged stimulus is called
A.
selectivity.
B.
adaptation.
C.
modality
D.
transduction.
E.
perception.
Question #45
The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is
A.
absorption of light by photopigments.
B.
absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.
C.
activation of amacrine cells.
D.
generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.
Question #46
A.
conducts impulses directly to the thalamus.
B.
receives information from the taste buds.
C.
contains only motor neurons.
D.
projects directly to the primary olfactory cortex and to the limbic system and hypothalamus.
Question #47
Which of the following statements accurately describes the changes in the membrane potential of a photoreceptor cell when light rays strike its photopigments?
A.
A graded potential proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus occurs in the photoreceptor cell.
B.
No changes in the membrane potential occur.
C.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes hyperpolarization.
D.
The photoreceptor cell creates action potentials at a frequency proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus.
E.
The photoreceptor cell undergoes rapid depolarization.
Question #48
______________ is a term used to describe pain that is felt at a site remote from the place of origin.
A.
Slow pain
B.
Referred pain
C.
Visceral pain
D.
Sympathetic pain
E.
Fast pain
Question #49
Proprioception means awareness of
A.
body position.
B.
pain.
C.
color vision.
D.
body temperature.
E.
visual acuity.
Question #50
The main function of muscle spindles is
A.
to perceive cutaneous sensations.
B.
to sense changes in muscle length.
C.
to sense referred pain.
D.
to sense muscle fatigue.
Question #51
All of the following types of stimuli are sensed by free nerve endings EXCEPT
A.
tickle.
B.
pressure.
C.
itch.
D.
pain.
E.
temperature.
Question #52
Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant
A.
does not occur.
B.
occurs slowly.
C.
increases sensitivity to that odorant.
D.
enhances gustation.
E.
occurs rapidly.
Question #53
Olfactory receptors are found
A.
only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity.
B.
only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.
C.
from the vestibule to the pharynx.
D.
throughout the nasal cavity.
E.
only in the mid-nasal ridges.
Question #54
Binocular vision
A.
is only seen in humans.
B.
provides more accurate color vision.
C.
occurs when one eye focuses on two separate objects.
D.
is all of these choices
E.
gives better depth perception.
Question #55
Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A.
Insulin
B.
Calcitonin
C.
Thyroid hormone
D.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
E.
Glucagon
Question #56
Which of the following situations represents negative feedback?
A.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
B.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then stimulates hormone A
C.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone A
D.
Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
E.
Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B then inhibits hormone C
Question #57
Which of the following hormones is released by the hypothalamus?
A.
Luteinizing hormone
B.
Follicle stimulating hormone
C.
Corticotropin releasing hormone
D.
Thyroid stimulating hormone
E.
Growth hormone
Question #58
Lipophilic (lipid-soluble) hormones
A.
include steroids and thyroid hormone
B.
All of these are correct answers
C.
Bind with receptors located on the cell membrane
D.
Activate second-messenger systems within their target cells
Question #59
Which of the following receptors regenerate after cell death?
A.
Gustatory and Olfactory receptors
B.
Olfactory receptors
C.
All of these receptors regenerate after cell death
D.
Gustatory receptors
E.
Photoreceptors
Question #60
All of the following hormone pairs are synergistic except for
A.
Human Growth Hormone and testosterone
B.
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
C.
All of these are synergistic pairs
D.
Follicle stimulating hormone and estrogen
E.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Question #61
All of the following are prime examples of negative feedback loops, except for:
A.
Testosterone
B.
All of these options are prime examples
C.
Calcitonin
D.
Oxytocin
E.
Human growth hormone
Question #62
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Depression of immune responses
B.
Reduction of inflammation
C.
Glucose formation
D.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
E.
Protein and fat breakdown
Question #63
When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This is called
A.
Paracrine regulation
B.
Up-regulation
C.
Down-regulation
D.
Receptor recognition
E.
Sensory adaptation
Question #64
The endocrine cells in the adrenal medulla are primarily innervated by which branch of the nervous system?
A.
Central
B.
Sympathetic
C.
Parasympathetic
D.
Somatic
E.
Sensory
Question #65
The most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones is
A.
Chromatin
B.
Messenger RNA
C.
Plasma proteins
D.
Calcium
E.
Cyclic AMP
Question #66
Which of the following would occur within the liver in response to insulin?
A.
Gluconeogenesis
B.
Glycogenolysis
C.
Glycogenesis
D.
Calcitonin downregulation
E.
Epinephrine release
Question #67
Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell?
A.
Releasing hormones.
B.
Signals from the nervous system
C.
Both Signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood
D.
Chemical changes in the blood
E.
Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell
Question #68
Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4?
A.
Iodide trapping
B.
Iodination of tyrosine
C.
Oxidation of iodide
D.
Coupling of T1 and T2
E.
Synthesis of calcitonin
Question #69
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth?
A.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
B.
Luteinizing hormone
C.
Thyrotropin
D.
Growth hormone
E.
Prolactin
Question #70
Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?
A.
Somatotrophs
B.
Lactotrophs
C.
Thyrotrophs
D.
Gonadotrophs
E.
Corticotrophs
Question #71
Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions?
A.
Chloride
B.
Manganese
C.
Potassium
D.
Calcium
E.
Sodium
Question #72
Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
A.
Protein and fat breakdown
B.
Increased production of all types of blood cells
C.
Depression of immune responses
D.
Glucose formation
E.
Reduction of inflammation
Question #73
What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland?
A.
Muscle contraction
B.
Hormones released from the hypothalamus
C.
The peripheral nervous system
D.
Action potentials from the thalamus
E.
Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
Question #74
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol?
A.
Insulin-like growth factors
B.
Leutinizing hormone
C.
Prolactin
D.
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
E.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Question #75
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production?
A.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
B.
Thyrotropin
C.
Luteinizing hormone
D.
Melanocyte stimulating hormone
E.
Prolactin
Question #76
Which of the following pairs of hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
A.
Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone
B.
Prolactin and ACTH
C.
Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin
D.
Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
E.
Prolactin and growth hormone
Question #77
Which hormone effect on the muscle is correct?
A.
Epinephrine helps increase blood flow to exercising muscle.
B.
Erythropoietin blocks formation of erythrocytes.
C.
ADH promotes water loss.
D.
Calcitonin is the primary regulator of Ca2+ needed for contraction.
E.
Thyroid hormone decreases muscle mass.
Question #78
A hormone that travels through the blood vessels to distant effectors is considered
A.
autocrine.
B.
circulating hormone.
C.
paracrine.
D.
local hormone.
Question #79
How many hormones do the five types of anterior pituitary cells secrete?
A.
5
B.
unlimited
C.
10
D.
12
E.
7
Question #80
Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
A.
Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
B.
Produces electrolytes
C.
Controls growth and development
D.
Regulates metabolism
Question #81
When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, it is called a(n)
A.
synergistic effect.
B.
local effect.
C.
antagonistic effect.
D.
permissive effect.
E.
circulating effect.
Question #82
Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells?
A.
Thyroid hormones
B.
Calcitonin
C.
Insulin
D.
Somatostatin
E.
Glucagon
Question #83
Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol?
A.
Nitric oxide
B.
Steroids
C.
Thyroid hormones
D.
Amine hormones
E.
Peptide hormones
Question #84
Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
A.
Increased digestive activities
B.
Increased glycogenesis
C.
Increased lipolysis
D.
Increased gluconeogenesis
E.
Increased breakdown of proteins
Question #85
What is the result of decreased secretion of aldosterone?
A.
Decreased airway dilation
B.
Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain
C.
Decreased heart rate
D.
Dehydration
E.
Metabolic acidosis
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