Microbiology 020 - General Microbiology » Winter 2022 » Lecture Exam 2 (Ch 5, 6, 7, 8)

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Question #1
Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
A.   Embryonated bird eggs
B.   Primary cell cultures
C.   Continuous cell cultures
D.   Live lab animals
E.   All of thechoices will support viral cultivation.
Question #2
Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are _____.
A.   inclusion bodies
B.   syncytia
C.   cytopathic
D.   chronic latent viruses
E.   oncoviruses
Question #3
The envelope of enveloped viruses________.
A.   None of the choices are correct
B.   does not contain spikes
C.   is identical to the host plasma membrane
D.   is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis
E.   is only composed of host endomembrane
Question #4
Select the three choices that are the primary purposes of cultivating viruses.
A.   To isolate viruses from clinical specimens To research the biology of viruses To prepare viruses for vaccines
B.   To research the biology of viruses To produce virusfor bioweapons use To produce chemicals such as alcohol and acetone
C.   To produce virusfor bioweapons use To produce chemicals such as alcohol and acetone To isolate viruses from clinical specimens
D.   To produce virusfor bioweapons use To prepare viruses for vaccines To produce chemicals such as alcohol and acetone
Question #5
During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the ________.
A.   host cytoplasm
B.   host nucleus
C.   host DNA
D.   host cell membrane
E.   host nucleolus
Question #6
Select the three methods that are used to cultivate viruses.
A.   Use of animalinoculation Use of enriched broth media Use of enrichedagar media
B.   Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media, Inoculation ofembryonated eggs
C.   Inoculation ofembryonated eggs, Use of animalinoculation, Use of cellculture techniques
D.   Use of enriched broth media Use of cellculture techniques Use of enrichedagar media
Question #7
A(n) _______ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
A.   spike
B.   envelope
C.   capsomere
D.   monolayer
E.   capsid
Question #8
The process of dissolving the envelope and capsid to release the viral nucleic acid is _______.
A.   adsorption
B.   synthesis
C.   assembly
D.   penetration
E.   uncoating
Question #9
Which of the following is not a typical capsid shape?
A.   Complex
B.   All of thechoices are capsid shapes.
C.   Icosahedron
D.   Tetrahedral
E.   Helical
Question #10
A negative-sense RNA virus ________.
A.   must synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome
B.   is ready for immediate translation
C.   always codes for RNA polymerase
D.   must synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome
E.   is a special form of tRNA used by viruses
Question #11
Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called _____.
A.   latent
B.   delta agents
C.   prions
D.   oncogenic
E.   viroids
Question #12
Viral tissue specificities are called _____.
A.   virions
B.   ranges
C.   uncoating
D.   receptacles
E.   tropisms
Question #13
Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _______.
A.   prions
B.   All of thechoices infect bacteria.
C.   bacteriophages
D.   viroids
E.   satellite viruses
Question #14
Infectious protein particles are called _______.
A.   viroids
B.   oncogenic viruses
C.   prions
D.   spikes
E.   phages
Question #15
Which of the following is incorrect about prophages?
A.   Occur when temperate phages enter host cells
B.   Cause lysis of host cells
C.   Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
D.   Present when the virus is in lysogeny
E.   Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
Question #16
Host range is limited by________.
A.   type of nucleic acid in the virus
B.   type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
C.   age of the host cell
D.   All of the choices are correct
E.   size of the host cell
Question #17
Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are _____.
A.   syncytia
B.   inclusion bodies
C.   chronic latent viruses
D.   oncoviruses
E.   cytopathic
Question #18
Viral nucleic acids include which of the following?
A.   Double-stranded DNA
B.   Single-stranded RNA
C.   Single-stranded DNA
D.   Double-stranded RNA
E.   All of the choices are correct
Question #19
Lysogeny refers to ________.
A.   altering the host range of a virus
B.   viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome
C.   None of the choices are correct
D.   latent state of herpes infections
E.   virion exiting host cell
Question #20
When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed _______.
A.   exocytosis
B.   phagocytosis
C.   facilitated transport
D.   pinocytosis
E.   facilitated diffusion
Question #21
What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?
A.   Blood agar
B.   Sodium chloride
C.   Thioglycollate
D.   Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine
E.   None of the choices are correct.
Question #22
Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell?
A.   Oxygen
B.   Carbon
C.   Hydrogen
D.   Copper
E.   Nitrogen
Question #23
Nutrient absorption is mediated by the________.
A.   peptidoglycan layer
B.   proteins in the periplasmic space
C.   cell membrane
D.   cell wall
E.   nuclear membrane
Question #24
An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is _______.
A.   zinc
B.   calcium
C.   iron
D.   magnesium
E.   potassium
Question #25
Select all of the cellular transport mechanisms that require energy.
A.   Simple diffusion and Bulk transport (phagocytosis, pinocytosis)
B.   Carrier-mediated active transport and Bulk transport (phagocytosis, pinocytosis)
C.   Facilitated diffusion and Carrier-mediated active transport
D.   Facilitated diffusion and Simple diffusion
Question #26
Facilitated diffusion is limited by________.
A.   size of the pores in the membrane
B.   carrier proteins in the membrane
C.   the size of the cell
D.   osmotic pressure
E.   substrate concentration
Question #27
Human pathogens fall into the group termed _______.
A.   acidophiles
B.   psychrophiles
C.   thermophiles
D.   mesophiles
E.   halophiles
Question #28
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called _______.
A.   diffusion
B.   endocytosis
C.   osmosis
D.   facilitated diffusion
E.   active transport
Question #29
The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes, ________.
A.   superoxide dismutase and oxidase
B.   superoxide dismutase and catalase
C.   catalase and hydrogen peroxidases
D.   superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidases
E.   catalase and oxidase
Question #30
The term obligate refers to________.
A.   using light for energy production
B.   existing in a very narrow niche
C.   using oxygen for metabolism
D.   the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions
E.   using chemicals for energy production
Question #31
What compound is the most abundant in a cell?
A.   H 2O
B.   NH 3
C.   CO 2
D.   CH 4
E.   Glucose
Question #32
All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except _______.
A.   anaerobes
B.   mesophiles
C.   facultative anaerobes
D.   psychrophiles
E.   capnophiles
Question #33
Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than free (planktonic) bacteria.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #34
Aerobic respiration is an example of _______.
A.   photoheterotrophy
B.   methanoheterophy
C.   photosynthesis
D.   chemoheterotrophy
E.   photoautotrophy
Question #35
Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from _______.
A.   organic compounds
B.   inorganic compounds
C.   salts
D.   water
E.   minerals
Question #36
An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a(n) _______.
A.   facultative anaerobe
B.   microaerophile
C.   obligate aerobe
D.   aerotolerant anaerobe
E.   obligate anaerobe
Question #37
  
A.   low pH
B.   high temperature
C.   low temperature
D.   All of the choices are correct.
E.   high pH
Question #38
FAD, NAD, and coenzyme A are all _______ carriers.
A.   electron
B.   None of the choices are correct.
C.   ATP
D.   hydrogen
E.   hydrogen andelectron
Question #39
Exergonic reactions ________.
A.   occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP
B.   do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration
C.   include synthesis of large carbohydrates
D.   only occur in heterotrophs
E.   release energy
Question #40
The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of ________ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction.
A.   coenzymes
B.   enzymes
C.   ATP
D.   cofactors
E.   vitamins
Question #41
In a bacterial cell, the genes that code for enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of an unusual carbohydrate source would be turned off unless that carbohydrate was the only fuel source available in the media, in which case________.
A.   the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be constitutive
B.   the enzymes would be denatured
C.   the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be repressed
D.   the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be induced
Question #42
How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule?
A.   2
B.   6
C.   3
D.   4
E.   5
Question #43
Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration?
A.   Utilizes an electron transport system
B.   Generates some ATP
C.   Involves glycolysis
D.   Uses the same final electron acceptor as aerobic respiration
Question #44
Which of the following is not involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
A.   NADH is formed
B.   Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group
C.   Pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
D.   CO2 is released
Question #45
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated?
A.   2 ATP
B.   42 ATP
C.   38 ATP
D.   24 ATP
E.   3 ATP
Question #46
  
A.   ligases
B.   phosphotransferases
C.   oxidoreductases
D.   peptidases
E.   aminotransferases
Question #47
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A.   38 ATP
B.   24 ATP
C.   2 ATP
D.   3 ATP
E.   36 ATP
Question #48
Each of the following is true of enzymes except ________.
A.   they increase the initial energy required for a reaction to start
B.   All of the choices are true of enzymes.
C.   they may or may not require cofactors
D.   they can be used over and over
E.   their active site is specific to the substrate
Question #49
The property of organisms to integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called _______.
A.   biosynthesis
B.   catabolism
C.   amphibolism
D.   anabolism
E.   metabolism
Question #50
Fatty acids can be converted to acetyl-CoA for entering the Krebs cycle by the process of _______.
A.   phosphorylation
B.   amination
C.   beta oxidation
D.     
E.   deamination
F.   gluconeogenesis
Question #51
Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions, such as nitrate, by some bacteria is called _______.
A.   deamination
B.   denitrification
C.   nitrification
D.   fermentation
E.   aerobic respiration
Question #52
During which phase of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
A.   Electron transport
B.   All phasesproduce the same number of ATP molecules.
C.   Glycolysis
D.   Krebs cycle
E.   Processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle
Question #53
In addition to electrons, which of the following can also be transferred, exchanging energy in the process?
A.   Hydrogen ion (proton)
B.   ADP
C.   Carbon dioxide
D.   Glucose
E.   Carbon
Question #54
The _______ strand is synthesized continuously while the ________ strand is synthesized in a series of short fragments called Okazaki fragments.
A.   primary; secondary
B.   lagging; leading
C.   leading; lagging
D.   original; primary
Question #55
Mastery of synthetic biology will allow humans to ________.
A.   synthesize chemicals in cells that are missing due to a genetic anomaly
B.   construct complex molecules in situ that will target cancerous cells in tissues
C.   design alternative forms of energy production
D.   make new organisms using only chemicals as the starting materials
E.   All of the choices are possibilities from synthetic biology
Question #56
Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #57
The emerging field of synthetic biology, while offering promising breakthroughs in medicine and energy production, is not without concern. Apprehension by ethicists is understandable since ________.
A.   the ability to create life from scratch raises a multitude of issues
B.   oil and gas prices will increase as a result of the decreased demand for fossil fuels
C.   mutations in manufactured cells will cause problems for existing organisms
D.   medical insurance costs will likely skyrocket
Question #58
The specific sequence of three bases in mRNA that encodes a particular amino acid is the _______ whereas the complementary sequence of three bases in tRNA that binds to the mRNA is best known as the _______.
A.   codon; DNA triplet
B.   anticodon; codon
C.   gene; complement
D.   codon; anticodon
Question #59
Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have ________.
A.   several to many chromosomes
B.   histone proteins
C.   elongated, not circular, chromosomes
D.   All of the choices are correct
E.   chromosomes in a nucleus
Question #60
When DNA is heated to 94 oC, the two strands will separate.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #61
Select the statement that best describes the purpose of gel electrophoresis.
A.   Gelelectrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on size.
B.   Gelelectrophoresis enables the amplification of specific DNA sequences.
C.   Gelelectrophoresis is able to cut DNA in very specific locations.
D.   Gelelectrophoresis joins different segments of DNA.
E.   Gelelectrophoresis identifies specific segments of DNA.
Question #62
Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #63
The lagging strand of DNA is made in small segments called Okazaki fragments, each one requiring a primer to begin synthesis, whereas the leading strand, synthesized continuously, does not require a primer to initiate the daughter strand.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #64
Synthetic biology is an emerging field of science whereby researchers are creating new molecules and organisms from an array of chemicals, rather than as a result of cellular reproduction.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #65
Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #66
Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #67
The expression of genetic traits is the _______.
A.   genotype
B.   phenotype
C.   proteotype
D.   genome
E.   proteome
Question #68
Each nucleotide is composed of ________.
A.   two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars
B.   one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, and one sugar
C.   two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar
D.   one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar
E.   one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars
Question #69
When bacteriophages invade bacterial cells, they leave behind DNA that is recognized by the bacteria as foreign and can be eliminated in the event of another attack, reminiscent of adaptive immunity. This natural process can be adapted in the lab so that a combination of guide DNA and nucleases facilitate the cutting of DNA at a precise location in any organism. Here we are describing ________.
A.   metagenomics
B.   CRISPR
C.   gene therapy
D.   synthetic biology
E.   recombinant DNA technology
Question #70
DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #71
Choose the statement that best describes the role of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering.
A.   Restrictionenzymes are used to replicate specific sequences of DNA.
B.   Restriction enzymes are used to purify DNA.
C.   Restriction enzymesare used to join different segments of DNA.
D.   Restrictionenzymes are used to sequence long stretches of DNA.
E.   Restrictionenzymes are used to cut DNA at specific locations.

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