Microbiology 020 - General Microbiology » Winter 2022 » Lecture Exam 2 (Ch 5, 6, 7, 8)

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Question #1
Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
A.   Embryonated bird eggs
B.   Primary cell cultures
C.   Continuous cell cultures
D.   Live lab animals
E.   All of thechoices will support viral cultivation.
Question #2
Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are _____.
A.   inclusion bodies
B.   cytopathic
C.   chronic latent viruses
D.   syncytia
E.   oncoviruses
Question #3
The envelope of enveloped viruses________.
A.   is identical to the host plasma membrane
B.   is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis
C.   None of the choices are correct
D.   does not contain spikes
E.   is only composed of host endomembrane
Question #4
Select the three choices that are the primary purposes of cultivating viruses.
A.   To research the biology of viruses To produce virusfor bioweapons use To produce chemicals such as alcohol and acetone
B.   To isolate viruses from clinical specimens To research the biology of viruses To prepare viruses for vaccines
C.   To produce virusfor bioweapons use To produce chemicals such as alcohol and acetone To isolate viruses from clinical specimens
D.   To produce virusfor bioweapons use To prepare viruses for vaccines To produce chemicals such as alcohol and acetone
Question #5
During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the ________.
A.   host cytoplasm
B.   host DNA
C.   host nucleolus
D.   host nucleus
E.   host cell membrane
Question #6
Select the three methods that are used to cultivate viruses.
A.   Use of animalinoculation Use of enriched broth media Use of enrichedagar media
B.   Use of enriched broth media Use of cellculture techniques Use of enrichedagar media
C.   Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media, Inoculation ofembryonated eggs
D.   Inoculation ofembryonated eggs, Use of animalinoculation, Use of cellculture techniques
Question #7
A(n) _______ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
A.   capsid
B.   monolayer
C.   capsomere
D.   spike
E.   envelope
Question #8
The process of dissolving the envelope and capsid to release the viral nucleic acid is _______.
A.   penetration
B.   synthesis
C.   uncoating
D.   adsorption
E.   assembly
Question #9
Which of the following is not a typical capsid shape?
A.   Tetrahedral
B.   Helical
C.   Icosahedron
D.   All of thechoices are capsid shapes.
E.   Complex
Question #10
A negative-sense RNA virus ________.
A.   is ready for immediate translation
B.   always codes for RNA polymerase
C.   must synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome
D.   must synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome
E.   is a special form of tRNA used by viruses
Question #11
Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called _____.
A.   prions
B.   latent
C.   delta agents
D.   viroids
E.   oncogenic
Question #12
Viral tissue specificities are called _____.
A.   uncoating
B.   virions
C.   receptacles
D.   tropisms
E.   ranges
Question #13
Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _______.
A.   prions
B.   bacteriophages
C.   satellite viruses
D.   viroids
E.   All of thechoices infect bacteria.
Question #14
Infectious protein particles are called _______.
A.   prions
B.   spikes
C.   viroids
D.   oncogenic viruses
E.   phages
Question #15
Which of the following is incorrect about prophages?
A.   Present when the virus is in lysogeny
B.   Cause lysis of host cells
C.   Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
D.   Occur when temperate phages enter host cells
E.   Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
Question #16
Host range is limited by________.
A.   type of nucleic acid in the virus
B.   All of the choices are correct
C.   size of the host cell
D.   type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
E.   age of the host cell
Question #17
Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are _____.
A.   cytopathic
B.   inclusion bodies
C.   syncytia
D.   oncoviruses
E.   chronic latent viruses
Question #18
Viral nucleic acids include which of the following?
A.   Double-stranded RNA
B.   All of the choices are correct
C.   Single-stranded RNA
D.   Double-stranded DNA
E.   Single-stranded DNA
Question #19
Lysogeny refers to ________.
A.   None of the choices are correct
B.   latent state of herpes infections
C.   altering the host range of a virus
D.   virion exiting host cell
E.   viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome
Question #20
When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed _______.
A.   pinocytosis
B.   facilitated transport
C.   exocytosis
D.   facilitated diffusion
E.   phagocytosis
Question #21
What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?
A.   Blood agar
B.   Thioglycollate
C.   Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine
D.   Sodium chloride
E.   None of the choices are correct.
Question #22
Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell?
A.   Hydrogen
B.   Carbon
C.   Oxygen
D.   Nitrogen
E.   Copper
Question #23
Nutrient absorption is mediated by the________.
A.   nuclear membrane
B.   proteins in the periplasmic space
C.   cell wall
D.   cell membrane
E.   peptidoglycan layer
Question #24
An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is _______.
A.   magnesium
B.   zinc
C.   calcium
D.   iron
E.   potassium
Question #25
Select all of the cellular transport mechanisms that require energy.
A.   Carrier-mediated active transport and Bulk transport (phagocytosis, pinocytosis)
B.   Simple diffusion and Bulk transport (phagocytosis, pinocytosis)
C.   Facilitated diffusion and Carrier-mediated active transport
D.   Facilitated diffusion and Simple diffusion
Question #26
Facilitated diffusion is limited by________.
A.   carrier proteins in the membrane
B.   size of the pores in the membrane
C.   the size of the cell
D.   substrate concentration
E.   osmotic pressure
Question #27
Human pathogens fall into the group termed _______.
A.   thermophiles
B.   psychrophiles
C.   mesophiles
D.   acidophiles
E.   halophiles
Question #28
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called _______.
A.   diffusion
B.   osmosis
C.   active transport
D.   facilitated diffusion
E.   endocytosis
Question #29
The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes, ________.
A.   catalase and oxidase
B.   catalase and hydrogen peroxidases
C.   superoxide dismutase and catalase
D.   superoxide dismutase and oxidase
E.   superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidases
Question #30
The term obligate refers to________.
A.   existing in a very narrow niche
B.   using light for energy production
C.   using oxygen for metabolism
D.   the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions
E.   using chemicals for energy production
Question #31
What compound is the most abundant in a cell?
A.   H 2O
B.   CH 4
C.   Glucose
D.   CO 2
E.   NH 3
Question #32
All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except _______.
A.   mesophiles
B.   facultative anaerobes
C.   anaerobes
D.   psychrophiles
E.   capnophiles
Question #33
Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than free (planktonic) bacteria.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #34
Aerobic respiration is an example of _______.
A.   photoheterotrophy
B.   methanoheterophy
C.   photosynthesis
D.   chemoheterotrophy
E.   photoautotrophy
Question #35
Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from _______.
A.   water
B.   organic compounds
C.   minerals
D.   inorganic compounds
E.   salts
Question #36
An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a(n) _______.
A.   obligate anaerobe
B.   microaerophile
C.   obligate aerobe
D.   facultative anaerobe
E.   aerotolerant anaerobe
Question #37
Each of the following are denaturing agents except ________.
A.   low pH
B.   high temperature
C.   high pH
D.   All of the choices are correct.
E.   low temperature
Question #38
FAD, NAD, and coenzyme A are all _______ carriers.
A.   ATP
B.   hydrogen andelectron
C.   None of the choices are correct.
D.   electron
E.   hydrogen
Question #39
Exergonic reactions ________.
A.   occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP
B.   release energy
C.   do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration
D.   only occur in heterotrophs
E.   include synthesis of large carbohydrates
Question #40
The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of ________ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction.
A.   vitamins
B.   cofactors
C.   coenzymes
D.   enzymes
E.   ATP
Question #41
In a bacterial cell, the genes that code for enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of an unusual carbohydrate source would be turned off unless that carbohydrate was the only fuel source available in the media, in which case________.
A.   the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be repressed
B.   the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be constitutive
C.   the enzymes would be denatured
D.   the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be induced
Question #42
How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule?
A.   2
B.   6
C.   4
D.   5
E.   3
Question #43
Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration?
A.   Uses the same final electron acceptor as aerobic respiration
B.   Generates some ATP
C.   Utilizes an electron transport system
D.   Involves glycolysis
Question #44
Which of the following is not involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
A.   NADH is formed
B.   Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group
C.   CO2 is released
D.   Pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
Question #45
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated?
A.   2 ATP
B.   24 ATP
C.   3 ATP
D.   38 ATP
E.   42 ATP
Question #46
Enzymes that hydrolyze a peptide bond are called _______.
A.   aminotransferases
B.   phosphotransferases
C.   oxidoreductases
D.   ligases
E.   peptidases
Question #47
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A.   36 ATP
B.   3 ATP
C.   24 ATP
D.   2 ATP
E.   38 ATP
Question #48
Each of the following is true of enzymes except ________.
A.   they can be used over and over
B.   they increase the initial energy required for a reaction to start
C.   their active site is specific to the substrate
D.   All of the choices are true of enzymes.
E.   they may or may not require cofactors
Question #49
The property of organisms to integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called _______.
A.   amphibolism
B.   biosynthesis
C.   catabolism
D.   metabolism
E.   anabolism
Question #50
Fatty acids can be converted to acetyl-CoA for entering the Krebs cycle by the process of _______.
A.     
B.   deamination
C.   phosphorylation
D.   beta oxidation
E.   amination
F.   gluconeogenesis
Question #51
Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions, such as nitrate, by some bacteria is called _______.
A.   nitrification
B.   denitrification
C.   aerobic respiration
D.   deamination
E.   fermentation
Question #52
During which phase of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
A.   Glycolysis
B.   All phasesproduce the same number of ATP molecules.
C.   Electron transport
D.   Processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle
E.   Krebs cycle
Question #53
In addition to electrons, which of the following can also be transferred, exchanging energy in the process?
A.   ADP
B.   Carbon
C.   Hydrogen ion (proton)
D.   Glucose
E.   Carbon dioxide
Question #54
The _______ strand is synthesized continuously while the ________ strand is synthesized in a series of short fragments called Okazaki fragments.
A.   primary; secondary
B.   lagging; leading
C.   leading; lagging
D.   original; primary
Question #55
Mastery of synthetic biology will allow humans to ________.
A.   make new organisms using only chemicals as the starting materials
B.   construct complex molecules in situ that will target cancerous cells in tissues
C.   synthesize chemicals in cells that are missing due to a genetic anomaly
D.   All of the choices are possibilities from synthetic biology
E.   design alternative forms of energy production
Question #56
Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #57
The emerging field of synthetic biology, while offering promising breakthroughs in medicine and energy production, is not without concern. Apprehension by ethicists is understandable since ________.
A.   medical insurance costs will likely skyrocket
B.   the ability to create life from scratch raises a multitude of issues
C.   mutations in manufactured cells will cause problems for existing organisms
D.   oil and gas prices will increase as a result of the decreased demand for fossil fuels
Question #58
The specific sequence of three bases in mRNA that encodes a particular amino acid is the _______ whereas the complementary sequence of three bases in tRNA that binds to the mRNA is best known as the _______.
A.   codon; anticodon
B.   gene; complement
C.   codon; DNA triplet
D.   anticodon; codon
Question #59
Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have ________.
A.   All of the choices are correct
B.   chromosomes in a nucleus
C.   histone proteins
D.   elongated, not circular, chromosomes
E.   several to many chromosomes
Question #60
When DNA is heated to 94 oC, the two strands will separate.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #61
Select the statement that best describes the purpose of gel electrophoresis.
A.   Gelelectrophoresis identifies specific segments of DNA.
B.   Gelelectrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on size.
C.   Gelelectrophoresis enables the amplification of specific DNA sequences.
D.   Gelelectrophoresis is able to cut DNA in very specific locations.
E.   Gelelectrophoresis joins different segments of DNA.
Question #62
Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #63
The lagging strand of DNA is made in small segments called Okazaki fragments, each one requiring a primer to begin synthesis, whereas the leading strand, synthesized continuously, does not require a primer to initiate the daughter strand.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #64
Synthetic biology is an emerging field of science whereby researchers are creating new molecules and organisms from an array of chemicals, rather than as a result of cellular reproduction.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #65
Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #66
Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #67
The expression of genetic traits is the _______.
A.   genotype
B.   genome
C.   proteotype
D.   phenotype
E.   proteome
Question #68
Each nucleotide is composed of ________.
A.   one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar
B.   one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars
C.   two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar
D.   two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars
E.   one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, and one sugar
Question #69
When bacteriophages invade bacterial cells, they leave behind DNA that is recognized by the bacteria as foreign and can be eliminated in the event of another attack, reminiscent of adaptive immunity. This natural process can be adapted in the lab so that a combination of guide DNA and nucleases facilitate the cutting of DNA at a precise location in any organism. Here we are describing ________.
A.   CRISPR
B.   metagenomics
C.   gene therapy
D.   synthetic biology
E.   recombinant DNA technology
Question #70
DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #71
Choose the statement that best describes the role of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering.
A.   Restriction enzymesare used to join different segments of DNA.
B.   Restrictionenzymes are used to replicate specific sequences of DNA.
C.   Restrictionenzymes are used to cut DNA at specific locations.
D.   Restriction enzymes are used to purify DNA.
E.   Restrictionenzymes are used to sequence long stretches of DNA.

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