Microbiology 020 - General Microbiology » Winter 2022 » Lecture Exam 2 (Ch 5, 6, 7, 8)

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Question #1
Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
A.   Continuous cell cultures
B.   Live lab animals
C.   All of thechoices will support viral cultivation.
D.   Embryonated bird eggs
E.   Primary cell cultures
Question #2
Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are _____.
A.   inclusion bodies
B.   cytopathic
C.   oncoviruses
D.   chronic latent viruses
E.   syncytia
Question #3
The envelope of enveloped viruses________.
A.   does not contain spikes
B.   is only composed of host endomembrane
C.   is identical to the host plasma membrane
D.   is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis
E.   None of the choices are correct
Question #4
Select the three choices that are the primary purposes of cultivating viruses.
A.   To produce virusfor bioweapons use To prepare viruses for vaccines To produce chemicals such as alcohol and acetone
B.   To research the biology of viruses To produce virusfor bioweapons use To produce chemicals such as alcohol and acetone
C.   To produce virusfor bioweapons use To produce chemicals such as alcohol and acetone To isolate viruses from clinical specimens
D.   To isolate viruses from clinical specimens To research the biology of viruses To prepare viruses for vaccines
Question #5
During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the ________.
A.   host cell membrane
B.   host cytoplasm
C.   host nucleolus
D.   host nucleus
E.   host DNA
Question #6
Select the three methods that are used to cultivate viruses.
A.   Use of animalinoculation Use of enriched broth media Use of enrichedagar media
B.   Use of enriched broth media Use of cellculture techniques Use of enrichedagar media
C.   Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media, Inoculation ofembryonated eggs
D.   Inoculation ofembryonated eggs, Use of animalinoculation, Use of cellculture techniques
Question #7
A(n) _______ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
A.   capsomere
B.   envelope
C.   spike
D.   monolayer
E.   capsid
Question #8
The process of dissolving the envelope and capsid to release the viral nucleic acid is _______.
A.   adsorption
B.   uncoating
C.   penetration
D.   assembly
E.   synthesis
Question #9
Which of the following is not a typical capsid shape?
A.   Tetrahedral
B.   Helical
C.   Icosahedron
D.   Complex
E.   All of thechoices are capsid shapes.
Question #10
A negative-sense RNA virus ________.
A.   must synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome
B.   is ready for immediate translation
C.   is a special form of tRNA used by viruses
D.   always codes for RNA polymerase
E.   must synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome
Question #11
Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called _____.
A.   latent
B.   viroids
C.   delta agents
D.   prions
E.   oncogenic
Question #12
Viral tissue specificities are called _____.
A.   virions
B.   tropisms
C.   receptacles
D.   uncoating
E.   ranges
Question #13
Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _______.
A.   bacteriophages
B.   viroids
C.   All of thechoices infect bacteria.
D.   prions
E.   satellite viruses
Question #14
Infectious protein particles are called _______.
A.   oncogenic viruses
B.   prions
C.   viroids
D.   phages
E.   spikes
Question #15
Which of the following is incorrect about prophages?
A.   Occur when temperate phages enter host cells
B.   Present when the virus is in lysogeny
C.   Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
D.   Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
E.   Cause lysis of host cells
Question #16
Host range is limited by________.
A.   type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
B.   size of the host cell
C.   type of nucleic acid in the virus
D.   age of the host cell
E.   All of the choices are correct
Question #17
Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are _____.
A.   chronic latent viruses
B.   cytopathic
C.   oncoviruses
D.   syncytia
E.   inclusion bodies
Question #18
Viral nucleic acids include which of the following?
A.   All of the choices are correct
B.   Double-stranded RNA
C.   Double-stranded DNA
D.   Single-stranded RNA
E.   Single-stranded DNA
Question #19
Lysogeny refers to ________.
A.   virion exiting host cell
B.   None of the choices are correct
C.   viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome
D.   altering the host range of a virus
E.   latent state of herpes infections
Question #20
When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed _______.
A.   exocytosis
B.   facilitated transport
C.   phagocytosis
D.   pinocytosis
E.   facilitated diffusion
Question #21
What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?
A.   Blood agar
B.   Sodium chloride
C.   Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine
D.   Thioglycollate
E.   None of the choices are correct.
Question #22
Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell?
A.   Oxygen
B.   Copper
C.   Carbon
D.   Hydrogen
E.   Nitrogen
Question #23
Nutrient absorption is mediated by the________.
A.   cell membrane
B.   nuclear membrane
C.   peptidoglycan layer
D.   proteins in the periplasmic space
E.   cell wall
Question #24
An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is _______.
A.   zinc
B.   magnesium
C.   potassium
D.   iron
E.   calcium
Question #25
Select all of the cellular transport mechanisms that require energy.
A.   Carrier-mediated active transport and Bulk transport (phagocytosis, pinocytosis)
B.   Simple diffusion and Bulk transport (phagocytosis, pinocytosis)
C.   Facilitated diffusion and Simple diffusion
D.   Facilitated diffusion and Carrier-mediated active transport
Question #26
Facilitated diffusion is limited by________.
A.   substrate concentration
B.   carrier proteins in the membrane
C.   size of the pores in the membrane
D.   osmotic pressure
E.   the size of the cell
Question #27
Human pathogens fall into the group termed _______.
A.   psychrophiles
B.   thermophiles
C.   halophiles
D.   acidophiles
E.   mesophiles
Question #28
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called _______.
A.   active transport
B.   endocytosis
C.   diffusion
D.   facilitated diffusion
E.   osmosis
Question #29
The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes, ________.
A.   superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidases
B.   catalase and hydrogen peroxidases
C.   superoxide dismutase and oxidase
D.   superoxide dismutase and catalase
E.   catalase and oxidase
Question #30
The term obligate refers to________.
A.   using chemicals for energy production
B.   existing in a very narrow niche
C.   using oxygen for metabolism
D.   using light for energy production
E.   the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions
Question #31
What compound is the most abundant in a cell?
A.   Glucose
B.   CH 4
C.   NH 3
D.   CO 2
E.   H 2O
Question #32
All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except _______.
A.   capnophiles
B.   facultative anaerobes
C.   psychrophiles
D.   anaerobes
E.   mesophiles
Question #33
Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than free (planktonic) bacteria.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #34
Aerobic respiration is an example of _______.
A.   photosynthesis
B.   photoheterotrophy
C.   photoautotrophy
D.   methanoheterophy
E.   chemoheterotrophy
Question #35
Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from _______.
A.   water
B.   organic compounds
C.   minerals
D.   salts
E.   inorganic compounds
Question #36
An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a(n) _______.
A.   obligate anaerobe
B.   facultative anaerobe
C.   obligate aerobe
D.   aerotolerant anaerobe
E.   microaerophile
Question #37
  
A.   high temperature
B.   All of the choices are correct.
C.   high pH
D.   low pH
E.   low temperature
Question #38
FAD, NAD, and coenzyme A are all _______ carriers.
A.   ATP
B.   electron
C.   None of the choices are correct.
D.   hydrogen
E.   hydrogen andelectron
Question #39
Exergonic reactions ________.
A.   include synthesis of large carbohydrates
B.   do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration
C.   only occur in heterotrophs
D.   release energy
E.   occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP
Question #40
The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of ________ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction.
A.   cofactors
B.   vitamins
C.   coenzymes
D.   ATP
E.   enzymes
Question #41
In a bacterial cell, the genes that code for enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of an unusual carbohydrate source would be turned off unless that carbohydrate was the only fuel source available in the media, in which case________.
A.   the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be induced
B.   the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be constitutive
C.   the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be repressed
D.   the enzymes would be denatured
Question #42
How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule?
A.   5
B.   3
C.   4
D.   2
E.   6
Question #43
Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration?
A.   Involves glycolysis
B.   Utilizes an electron transport system
C.   Generates some ATP
D.   Uses the same final electron acceptor as aerobic respiration
Question #44
Which of the following is not involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
A.   CO2 is released
B.   Pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
C.   NADH is formed
D.   Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group
Question #45
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated?
A.   42 ATP
B.   3 ATP
C.   38 ATP
D.   24 ATP
E.   2 ATP
Question #46
  
A.   oxidoreductases
B.   ligases
C.   peptidases
D.   phosphotransferases
E.   aminotransferases
Question #47
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A.   36 ATP
B.   24 ATP
C.   38 ATP
D.   3 ATP
E.   2 ATP
Question #48
Each of the following is true of enzymes except ________.
A.   they can be used over and over
B.   All of the choices are true of enzymes.
C.   they may or may not require cofactors
D.   they increase the initial energy required for a reaction to start
E.   their active site is specific to the substrate
Question #49
The property of organisms to integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called _______.
A.   metabolism
B.   amphibolism
C.   anabolism
D.   biosynthesis
E.   catabolism
Question #50
Fatty acids can be converted to acetyl-CoA for entering the Krebs cycle by the process of _______.
A.     
B.   gluconeogenesis
C.   beta oxidation
D.   phosphorylation
E.   amination
F.   deamination
Question #51
Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions, such as nitrate, by some bacteria is called _______.
A.   denitrification
B.   fermentation
C.   deamination
D.   nitrification
E.   aerobic respiration
Question #52
During which phase of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
A.   Krebs cycle
B.   Glycolysis
C.   All phasesproduce the same number of ATP molecules.
D.   Electron transport
E.   Processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle
Question #53
In addition to electrons, which of the following can also be transferred, exchanging energy in the process?
A.   Glucose
B.   Carbon dioxide
C.   Carbon
D.   Hydrogen ion (proton)
E.   ADP
Question #54
The _______ strand is synthesized continuously while the ________ strand is synthesized in a series of short fragments called Okazaki fragments.
A.   original; primary
B.   leading; lagging
C.   primary; secondary
D.   lagging; leading
Question #55
Mastery of synthetic biology will allow humans to ________.
A.   construct complex molecules in situ that will target cancerous cells in tissues
B.   design alternative forms of energy production
C.   make new organisms using only chemicals as the starting materials
D.   synthesize chemicals in cells that are missing due to a genetic anomaly
E.   All of the choices are possibilities from synthetic biology
Question #56
Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #57
The emerging field of synthetic biology, while offering promising breakthroughs in medicine and energy production, is not without concern. Apprehension by ethicists is understandable since ________.
A.   medical insurance costs will likely skyrocket
B.   oil and gas prices will increase as a result of the decreased demand for fossil fuels
C.   mutations in manufactured cells will cause problems for existing organisms
D.   the ability to create life from scratch raises a multitude of issues
Question #58
The specific sequence of three bases in mRNA that encodes a particular amino acid is the _______ whereas the complementary sequence of three bases in tRNA that binds to the mRNA is best known as the _______.
A.   codon; anticodon
B.   anticodon; codon
C.   codon; DNA triplet
D.   gene; complement
Question #59
Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have ________.
A.   elongated, not circular, chromosomes
B.   chromosomes in a nucleus
C.   histone proteins
D.   several to many chromosomes
E.   All of the choices are correct
Question #60
When DNA is heated to 94 oC, the two strands will separate.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #61
Select the statement that best describes the purpose of gel electrophoresis.
A.   Gelelectrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on size.
B.   Gelelectrophoresis is able to cut DNA in very specific locations.
C.   Gelelectrophoresis enables the amplification of specific DNA sequences.
D.   Gelelectrophoresis identifies specific segments of DNA.
E.   Gelelectrophoresis joins different segments of DNA.
Question #62
Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #63
The lagging strand of DNA is made in small segments called Okazaki fragments, each one requiring a primer to begin synthesis, whereas the leading strand, synthesized continuously, does not require a primer to initiate the daughter strand.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #64
Synthetic biology is an emerging field of science whereby researchers are creating new molecules and organisms from an array of chemicals, rather than as a result of cellular reproduction.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #65
Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #66
Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #67
The expression of genetic traits is the _______.
A.   phenotype
B.   genotype
C.   proteotype
D.   genome
E.   proteome
Question #68
Each nucleotide is composed of ________.
A.   one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar
B.   one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars
C.   two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar
D.   two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars
E.   one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, and one sugar
Question #69
When bacteriophages invade bacterial cells, they leave behind DNA that is recognized by the bacteria as foreign and can be eliminated in the event of another attack, reminiscent of adaptive immunity. This natural process can be adapted in the lab so that a combination of guide DNA and nucleases facilitate the cutting of DNA at a precise location in any organism. Here we are describing ________.
A.   metagenomics
B.   recombinant DNA technology
C.   CRISPR
D.   synthetic biology
E.   gene therapy
Question #70
DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #71
Choose the statement that best describes the role of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering.
A.   Restrictionenzymes are used to replicate specific sequences of DNA.
B.   Restrictionenzymes are used to sequence long stretches of DNA.
C.   Restriction enzymes are used to purify DNA.
D.   Restriction enzymesare used to join different segments of DNA.
E.   Restrictionenzymes are used to cut DNA at specific locations.

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