Microbiology 020 - General Microbiology » Winter 2022 » Lecture Exam 4 (Ch 12, 13, 14)

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Question #1
Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it ________.
A.   creates a physical barrier against pathogens
B.   destroys pathogens
C.   is toxic to pathogens
D.   None of the choices are correct.
E.   physically restricts pathogens to a specific region
Question #2
Select examples of innate host defense mechanisms in order to test your understanding of host defenses.
A.   Host defenses due to B and T cells and their products Use of drugs and antibiotics Anatomical and physiological barriers
B.   Host defenses due to B and T cells and their products Use of drugs and antibiotics
C.   Internal cellular and chemical defenses Phagocytosis and inflammation Anatomical and physiological barriers
D.   Internal cellular and chemical defenses Use of drugs and antibiotics Host defenses due to B and T cells and their products
Question #3
The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as ________.
A.   GALT
B.   tonsils
C.   lymph nodes
D.   spleen
E.   thymus
Question #4
Each of the following is involved in the migration of white blood cells except ________.
A.   motility
B.   vasodilation
C.   diapedesis
D.   chemotaxis
E.   phagocytosis
Question #5
Which of the following is incorrect about circulating blood cells?
A.   After birth, produced in red bone marrow sites
B.   Include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei
C.   Include Kupffer cells
D.   Develop from undifferentiated stem cells
E.   Include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes
Question #6
_____ function in humoral immunity, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity.
A.   B cells; T cells
B.   Basophils; T cells
C.   B cells; neutrophils
D.   T cells; B cells
E.   Monocytes; basophils
Question #7
Which of the following fluid compartments is not a partner in immune function?
A.   Intracellular fluid
B.   Bloodstream
C.   Lymphatic system
D.   Extracellular fluid
Question #8
The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the ________.
A.   respiratory tract
B.   skin
C.   eyes
D.   digestive tract
E.   urinary tract
Question #9
Which of the following is incorrect about inflammation?
A.   Basophils and mast cells release histamine.
B.   It can last hours to years.
C.   Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.
D.   Fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen.
E.   Serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction.
Question #10
Which of the following is mismatched dealing with inflammation?
A.   Dolar—pain
B.   None of these are mismatched.
C.   Tumor—cancer
D.   Rubor—redness
E.   Calor—warmth
Question #11
Plasma ________.
A.   is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended
B.   All of the choices are correct.
C.   is mostly water
D.   contains fibrinogen
E.   contains albumin and globulins
Question #12
Each of the following are physical barriers to pathogens except ________.
A.   unbroken skin
B.   mucus
C.   tears
D.   hairs
E.   T cells
Question #13
Diapedesis is the ________.
A.   production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
B.   production of only red blood cells
C.   plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding
D.   migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
E.   loss of blood due to hemorrhaging
Question #14
Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation?
A.   Destroy microbes
B.   Start tissue repair
C.   Block further invasion
D.   Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site
E.   Cause a fever
Question #15
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _______ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors.
A.   granulocytes
B.   agranulocytes
C.   leukocytes
D.   monocytes
E.   None of the choices are correct.
Question #16
The granules of basophils contain ________.
A.   antigens
B.   lysozyme
C.   histamine
D.   digestive enzymes
E.   antibodies
Question #17
The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except ________.
A.   warmth
B.   pain
C.   redness
D.   chills
E.   swelling
Question #18
Which type of white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections?
A.   Eosinophils
B.   Neutrophils
C.   Monocytes
D.   Basophils
E.   Lymphocytes
Question #19
Leukocytes that are derived from monocytes and have long, thin processes to trap pathogens are ________.
A.   eosinophils
B.   dendritic cells
C.   platelets
D.   mast cells
E.   macrophages
Question #20
When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into ________.
A.   macrophages
B.   cytotoxic T cells
C.   killer T cells
D.   neutrophils
E.   primary phagocytes
Question #21
The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are ________.
A.   monocytes
B.   eosinophils
C.   basophils
D.   neutrophils
E.   lymphocytes
Question #22
Which of the following are correct descriptions of the first line of defense?
A.   Involves barriers at portals of entry Involves phagocytic cells (neutrophils and macrophages) Involves recognition of foreign agents by their pathogen-associated molecular patterns
B.   Includes chemicals such as lysozyme and lactic acid Involves barriers at portals of entry Examples include the ciliated epithelium of the respiratory passages, excretion of urine, and production of tears
C.   Includes chemicals such as lysozyme and lactic acid Involves recognition of foreign agents by their pathogen-associated molecular patterns
D.   Involves phagocytic cells (neutrophils and macrophages) Involves recognition of foreign agents by their pathogen-associated molecular patterns
Question #23
Each of the following are benefits of fever except it ________.
A.   reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply
B.   increases metabolism
C.   increases phagocytosis
D.   stimulates hematopoiesis
E.   increases the availability of iron
Question #24
This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota.
A.   Skin
B.   Digestive tract
C.   Respiratory tract
D.   Eyes
E.   Urinary tract
Question #25
The immunoglobulins found on the surface of B cells are ________.
A.   IgM and IgD
B.   IgM only
C.   IgG only
D.   IgD and IgE
E.   IgD only
Question #26
MHC molecules are found on each of the following cells except ________.
A.   red blood cells
B.   epithelial cells
C.   leukocytes
D.   islet of Langerhans cells
E.   eosinophils
Question #27
The major histocompatibility complex is ________.
A.   a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins
B.   glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells
C.   located in the thymus gland
D.     
E.   All of the choices are correct.
F.   found on the third chromosome
Question #28
Lymphocytes ________.
A.   develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity
B.   have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens
C.   possess MHC antigens for recognizing self
D.   gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self
E.   All of the choices are correct.
Question #29
________ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
A.   IgM
B.   IgG
C.   IgA
D.   IgE
E.   IgD
Question #30
Memory B cells are formed during the primary response so that upon a secondary antigen exposure, a faster and more vigorous antibody response ensues.
A.   true
B.   false
Question #31
Superantigens are ________.
A.   bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens
B.   body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign
C.   those that evoke allergic reactions
D.   cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members
E.   None of the choices are correct.
Question #32
All of the following are characteristics of IgM except ________.
A.   has 10 antigen binding sites
B.   contains a central J chain
C.   is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell
D.   can serve as a B-cell receptor
E.   is a dimer
Question #33
B and T cells can only recognize and bind antigen that has been processed and presented on MHC molecules.
A.   false
B.   true
Question #34
Class II MHC genes code for ________.
A.   receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells
B.   self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes
C.   all HLA antigens
D.   All of the choices are correct.
E.   certain secreted complement components
Question #35
What type of cells secrete antibodies?
A.   Plasma cells
B.   Antigen-presenting cells
C.   Helper T cells
D.   B cells
E.   Cytotoxic T cells
Question #36
The most significant cells in graft rejection are ________.
A.   cytotoxic T cells
B.   delayed hypersensitivity T cells
C.   natural killer (NK) cells
D.   suppressor T cells
E.   helper T cells
Question #37
Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called ________.
A.   autoantigens
B.   None of the choices are correct.
C.   allergens
D.   heterophilic antigens
E.   superantigens
Question #38
Properties of effective antigens include all the following except ________.
A.   are cells or large, complex molecules
B.   have large polymers made up of repeating subunits
C.   are large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000
D.   have molecular complexity
E.   are foreign to the immune system
Question #39
Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions ________.
A.   are the result of genetic expression
B.   receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system
C.   aid in cellular development
D.   function in recognition of self molecules
E.   All of the choices are correct.
Question #40
The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a(n) ________.
A.   variable region
B.   epitope
C.   None of the choices are correct.
D.   antigen binding site
E.   hapten
Question #41
Helper T cells ________.
A.   secrete antibodies
B.   suppress immune reactions
C.   activate B cells and other T cells
D.   function in allergic reactions
E.   directly destroy target cells
Question #42
The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is ________.
A.   IgA
B.   IgM
C.   IgD
D.   IgE
E.   IgG
Question #43
T-cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires ________.
A.   interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell
B.   binding of T-cell to a site on the antigen
C.   binding of T-cell to a class II MHC receptor on a macrophage
D.     
E.   All of the choices are correct.
F.   typically a protein antigen
Question #44
There are only two major subsets of T cells.
A.   false
B.   true
Question #45
Antigen-presenting cells ________.
A.   include macrophages
B.   include dendritic cells
C.   engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic
D.   hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface
E.   All of the choices are correct.
Question #46
Plasma cells ________.
A.   directly destroy target cells
B.   secrete antibodies
C.   function in allergic reactions
D.   activate B cells and other T cells
E.   suppress immune reactions
Question #47
Each ________ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one epitope.
A.   Fc
B.   Fab
C.   hinge
D.   variable
E.   terminal
Question #48
Lymphocyte maturation involves ________.
A.   hormonal signals that initiate development
B.   release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs
C.   T cells maturing in the thymus
D.   All of the choices are correct.
E.   B cells maturing in bone marrow sites
Question #49
The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except ________.
A.   two identical heavy polypeptide chains
B.   two identical light polypeptide chains
C.   a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain
D.   disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains
E.   four antigen binding sites
Question #50
The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is ________.
A.   histamine
B.   prostaglandin
C.   leukotriene
D.   serotonin
E.   platelet-activating factor
Question #51
Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except ________.
A.   rheumatoid arthritis
B.   Graves' disease
C.   myasthenia gravis
D.   multiple sclerosis
E.   tuberculin reaction
Question #52
Which type(s) of hypersensitivity is IgG involved with?
A.   Both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated
B.   Anaphylaxis
C.   Immune complex mediated
D.   Antibody mediated
E.   Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated
Question #53
What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes?
A.   None of the choices are correct.
B.   Host rejection of graft
C.   Graft versus host disease
D.   Hypogammaglobulinemia
E.   Formation of autoantibodies
Question #54
Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A.   Histamine acts on smooth muscle
B.   Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
C.   Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
D.   Degranulation
E.   Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
Question #55
Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing ________.
A.   tissue matching
B.   degranulation
C.   sensitization
D.   desensitization
E.   None of thechoices are correct.
Question #56
What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue?
A.   Skin graft
B.   Blood transfusion
C.   All of thechoices are correct.
D.   Organ transplantation
E.   Both skin graft and organ transplantation
Question #57
A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is ________.
A.   eczema
B.   asthma
C.   anaphylaxis
D.   allergic rhinitis
E.   atopic dermatitis
Question #58
Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?
A.   Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues
B.   Involves an immune complex reaction
C.   Serum sickness is a systemic response
D.   Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies
E.   The Arthus reaction is a local response
Question #59
Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against ________.
A.   myelin sheath cells of the nervous system
B.   acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle
C.   sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane
D.   acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle
E.   cells in thyroid follicles
Question #60
Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?
A.   Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
B.   Degranulation
C.   Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
D.   Histamine acts on smooth muscle
E.   Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
Question #61
Corticosteroids will ________.
A.   relieve inflammatory symptoms
B.   reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles
C.   inhibit the activity of lymphocytes
D.   block synthesis of leukotrienes
E.   bind to histamine receptors on target organs
Question #62
Which of the following is not a possible symptom of type I hypersensitivity?
A.   Rhinitis
B.   Contact dermatitis
C.   Rashes
D.   Sneezing
E.   Diarrhea
Question #63
Autoimmunity is typically due to ________.
A.   autoantibodies and T cells
B.   graft rejection
C.   IgE and mast cells
D.   a deficiency in T-cell development
E.   a transfusion reaction
Question #64
Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category ________.
A.   type I only
B.   type I and type IV
C.   type I, type II, and type III
D.   type I, type II, type III, and type IV
E.   type IV only
Question #65
Histamine causes all of the following except ________.
A.   constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine
B.   increased sensitivity to pain
C.   wheal and flare reaction in skin
D.   relaxes vascular smooth muscle
E.   pruritus and headache
Question #66
Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?
A.   Injectant
B.   None of the choices are correct.
C.   Ingestant
D.   Contactant
E.   Inhalant
Question #67
Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n) ________.
A.   xenograft
B.   allograft
C.   isograft
D.     
E.   autograft
F.   hypograft
Question #68
Each of the following is an autoimmune disease except ________.
A.   systemic lupus erythematosus
B.   rheumatic fever
C.   metastatic cancer
D.   Graves' disease
E.   type I diabetes
Question #69
All of the following are involved in type 2 hypersensitivity except ________.
A.   complement
B.   IgM
C.   IgE
D.   foreign cells
E.   IgG
Question #70
The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is ________.
A.   humoralpathology
B.   immunopathology
C.   epidemiology
D.   histopathology
E.   hemopathology
Question #71
Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a(n) ________.
A.   desensitization
B.   hypersensitivity
C.   transfusion reaction
D.   autoimmune disease
E.   immunodeficiency
Question #72
The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when ________.
A.   maternal Rh ˗ cells enter an Rh + fetus
B.   fetal Rh + cells enter an Rh - mother
C.   fetal Rh ˗ cells enter an Rh + mother
D.   fetal Rh + cells enter an Rh + mother
E.   maternal Rh + cells enter an Rh -fetus
Question #73
A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered ________.
A.   delayed
B.   T-cell mediated
C.   antibody mediated
D.   systemic anaphylactic
E.   atopic

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