Microbiology 020 - General Microbiology » Winter 2022 » Final Lecture Exam
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Question #1
All of the following are monosaccharides except _____.
A.
ribose
B.
deoxyribose
C.
glycogen
D.
glucose
E.
fructose
Question #2
Helminths are _____.
A.
molds
B.
infectious particles
C.
parasitic worms
D.
protozoa
E.
bacteria
Question #3
If you were a microbiologist in 1950, which of the following scientific principles would you already know?
A.
Aseptic techniques could reduce the number of wound infections in the surgical setting.
B.
Enzymes found in bacteria can be used to cut DNA.
C.
Biofilms can form on implanted objects in the human body and be responsible for infection.
D.
Very little DNA is transcribed into RNA that is then translated into proteins.
Question #4
Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
A.
Egyptians using moldy bread on wounds
B.
Escherichia coli producing human insulin
C.
A microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
D.
Public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
E.
Bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors
Question #5
The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was _____.
A.
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
B.
Louis Pasteur
C.
Ignaz Semmelweis
D.
Robert Koch
E.
Joseph Lister
Question #6
Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed _____.
A.
anaerobic
B.
autotrophic
C.
fastidious
D.
aerobic
E.
microaerophilic
Question #7
What three components comprise the flagellum, extending from the cytoplasm to the exterior of the cell?
A.
Filament, basal body, hook
B.
Basal body, hook, filament
C.
Filament, hook, basal body
D.
Hook, basal body, filament
E.
Basal body, filament, hook
Question #8
Select those structures that are found in a gram-positive cell envelope.
A.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Outer membrane
B.
Teichoic acids, Thick layer of peptidoglycan, Cell membrane, Lipoteichoic acids
C.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Cell membrane
D.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Outer membrane, Lipoteichoic acids
Question #9
Each bacterial species represents a distinct organism that can produce viable offspring when mating with other bacteria of its kind.
A.
false
B.
true
Question #10
Endospores are ________.
A.
resistant to heat and chemical destruction
B.
All of the choices are correct.
C.
resistant to destruction by radiation
D.
metabolically inactive
E.
living structures
Question #11
Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are _____.
A.
chronic latent viruses
B.
syncytia
C.
inclusion bodies
D.
oncoviruses
E.
cytopathic
Question #12
Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are _____.
A.
cytopathic
B.
oncoviruses
C.
syncytia
D.
chronic latent viruses
E.
inclusion bodies
Question #13
Select the three methods that are used to cultivate viruses.
A.
Use of cellculture techniques, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
B.
Use of animalinoculation, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
C.
Use of cellculture techniques, Use of animalinoculation, Inoculation ofembryonated eggs
D.
Inoculation ofembryonated eggs, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
Question #14
Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _______.
A.
All of the choices infect bacteria.
B.
satellite viruses
C.
prions
D.
bacteriophages
E.
viroids
Question #15
Virus capsids are made from subunits called ______.
A.
spikes
B.
prophages
C.
envelopes
D.
peplomers
E.
capsomeres
Question #16
Facilitated diffusion is limited by________.
A.
carrier proteins in the membrane
B.
size of the pores in the membrane
C.
osmotic pressure
D.
substrate concentration
E.
the size of the cell
Question #17
What compound is the most abundant in a cell?
A.
H 2O
B.
CO 2
C.
NH 3
D.
CH 4
E.
Glucose
Question #18
A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with _______.
A.
high salt
B.
oxygen
C.
high acidity
D.
temperatures above 37°C
E.
carbon dioxide
Question #19
How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule?
A.
5
B.
4
C.
6
D.
3
Question #20
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A.
2 ATP
B.
36 ATP
C.
3 ATP
D.
24 ATP
E.
38 ATP
Question #21
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated?
A.
38 ATP
B.
2 ATP
C.
42 ATP
D.
3 ATP
E.
24 ATP
Question #22
NADH and FADH2 molecules are oxidized in which step of the aerobic respiration process?
A.
Preparation for Krebs cycle
B.
Electron transport system
C.
Krebs cycle
D.
Glycolysis
Question #23
Glycolysis ________.
A.
None of the choices are correct.
B.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, and requires oxygen
C.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, without using oxygen
D.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, and requires oxygen
E.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, without using oxygen
Question #24
A recombinant organism is one that has sustained a change in its genome through receipt of DNA from a different organism.
A.
true
B.
false
Question #25
The expression of genetic traits is the _______.
A.
proteotype
B.
proteome
C.
phenotype
D.
genotype
E.
genome
Question #26
The emerging field of synthetic biology, while offering promising breakthroughs in medicine and energy production, is not without concern. Apprehension by ethicists is understandable since ________.
A.
the ability to create life from scratch raises a multitude of issues
B.
medical insurance costs will likely skyrocket
C.
oil and gas prices will increase as a result of the decreased demand for fossil fuels
D.
mutations in manufactured cells will cause problems for existing organisms
Question #27
Which is incorrect about purines?
A.
Always paired with a specific pyrimidine
B.
Only found in DNA, not in RNA
C.
Found within nucleotides
D.
Include adenine and guanine
E.
Are nitrogenous bases
Question #28
Which of the following are correctly matched?
A.
Bacteriostatic—kills bacteria Bactericidal—inhibits the growth of bacteria
B.
Bacteriostatic—kills bacteria Bactericidal—kills bacteria
C.
Bacteriostatic—inhibits the growth of bacteria Bactericidal—inhibits the growth of bacteria
D.
Bactericidal—kills bacteria Bacteriostatic—inhibits the growth of bacteria
Question #29
Which of the following does not affect microbial nucleic acids?
A.
Ultraviolet light
B.
X rays
C.
Moist heat
D.
Formaldehyde
E.
Ethylene dioxide
Question #30
The most efficient sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are ________.
A.
71.6°C for 15 seconds
B.
63°C for 30 minutes
C.
100°C for 30 minutes
D.
160°C for 2 hours
E.
121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
Question #31
Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by _______.
A.
pasteurization
B.
chlorination
C.
hydrogen peroxide
D.
moist heat autoclave
E.
boiling water
Question #32
Each of the following affect cell walls except ________.
A.
isoniazid
B.
cephalosporin
C.
vancomycin
D.
erythromycin
E.
penicillin
Question #33
Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.
A.
true
B.
false
Question #34
The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called _______.
A.
chemotherapy
B.
synergism
C.
selective toxicity
D.
nephrotoxicity
E.
prophylaxis
Question #35
Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?
A.
Adhesion
B.
Margination
C.
Encapsulation
D.
Phagocytosis
E.
Exocytosis
Question #36
Select the body sites that serve as portals of entry for microbes.
A.
Liver, Endocrine glands, brain
B.
Urethra, Endocrine glands, brain
C.
Vagina, Urethra, Mouth, Skin, Nose
D.
Liver, Endocrine glands, Skin
Question #37
The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are ________.
A.
lysozymes
B.
leukotrines
C.
interferons
D.
complement
E.
pyrogens
Question #38
Each of the following are benefits of fever except it ________.
A.
stimulates hematopoiesis
B.
reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply
C.
increases phagocytosis
D.
increases metabolism
E.
increases the availability of iron
Question #39
Helper T cells ________.
A.
secrete antibodies
B.
function in allergic reactions
C.
directly destroy target cells
D.
activate B cells and other T cells
E.
suppress immune reactions
Question #40
Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called ________.
A.
allergens
B.
superantigens
C.
autoantigens
D.
heterophilic antigens
E.
None of the choices are correct.
Question #41
The major histocompatibility complex is ________.
A.
located in the thymus gland
B.
found on the third chromosome
C.
a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins
D.
All of thechoices are correct.
E.
glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells
Question #42
The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the ________.
A.
variable region
B.
joining region
C.
light region
D.
hinge region
E.
constant region
Question #43
The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is ________.
A.
immunopathology
B.
histopathology
C.
humoralpathology
D.
hemopathology
E.
epidemiology
Question #44
Which type(s) of hypersensitivity is IgG involved with?
A.
Both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated
B.
Anaphylaxis
C.
Immune complex mediated
D.
Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated
E.
Antibody mediated
Question #45
Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?
A.
Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies
B.
Involves an immune complex reaction
C.
The Arthus reaction is a local response
D.
Serum sickness is a systemic response
E.
Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues
Question #46
A female who is Rh – ________.
A.
is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn
B.
is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status
C.
inherited two dominant genes
D.
can never have an Rh+ baby
E.
All of thechoices are correct.
Question #47
Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n) ________.
A.
isograft
B.
autograft
C.
xenograft
D.
hypograft
E.
allograft
Question #48
A positive indirect ELISA result requires ________.
A.
a known antigen, an unknown antibody, and a known antibody
B.
two known antibodies andone known antigen
C.
All of the choices are correct.
D.
two known antibodies andone unknown antigen
E.
one known antibody, one unknown antibody, and an unknown antigen
Question #49
Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test.
A.
Agglutination
B.
Precipitation
C.
Cross reactions
D.
Specificity
E.
Sensitivity
Question #50
Animals are required for the cultivation of ________.
A.
Salmonella
B.
Pseudomonas
C.
Streptococcus
D.
Treponema pallidum
E.
Clostridium
Question #51
The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others is ________.
A.
precipitation
B.
sensitivity
C.
specificity
D.
agglutination
E.
cross reaction
Question #52
What type of test will detect whole antigens?
A.
Cross reaction
B.
Specificity
C.
Precipitation
D.
Sensitivity
E.
Agglutination
Question #53
The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is ________.
A.
sensitivity
B.
precipitation
C.
cross reaction
D.
specificity
E.
agglutination
Question #54
Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test for HIV?
A.
Western blot
B.
Immunochromatography
C.
Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
D.
Weil-Felix
E.
Immunelectrophoresis
Question #55
Choose the statement that best describes the probe used in the hybridization method of microbe identification.
A.
Unlabeledcomplementary DNA
B.
Labeledcomplementary DNA
C.
Labeled identicalDNA
D.
Labeledcomplementary RNA
Question #56
Microorganisms can be identified from a patient sample using biochemical tests based on the premise that ________.
A.
bacteriophages infect certain bacterial cells and the specificity can be used to identify the organism
B.
organisms will not grow on certain media types and can be selected for on others
C.
organisms have a unique combination of metabolic enzymes that are displayed when color-changing dyes are utilized to demonstrate their physiological response to specific substrates
D.
organisms display specific antigens that can be bound by color-changing antibodies that allow the clinician to locate and identify the pathogen
Question #57
What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?
A.
Wear insect repellent
B.
Ivermectin treatment
C.
Prophylactic antibiotics
D.
Good hygiene
Question #58
The Human Microbiome Project revealed ________.
A.
vast numbers of organisms are found on expansive, dry areas of the skin
B.
the skin microbiota changes constantly over time
C.
All of the choices are correct.
D.
high salt areas of the skin limit bacterial growth
E.
the skin microbiome is much more varied than previously thought
Question #59
Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics except ________.
A.
causes roseola in infants and young children
B.
appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults
C.
it is a very rare form of herpesvirus
D.
a rash appears on the fourth day
E.
starts with a high fever
Question #60
All Staphylococci can be differentiated from all Streptococci because only Staphylococci produce the enzyme _______ that is easily detected in the lab.
A.
staphylokinase
B.
C.
exfoliative toxinA
D.
exfoliative toxinB
E.
catalase
F.
lactase
Question #61
Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?
A.
Protects against three different viral diseases
B.
Is given in early childhood
C.
Contains attenuated virus
D.
Contains toxoids
E.
None of the choices are correct.
Question #62
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A.
Can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B.
Has a clear discharge
C.
Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic
D.
Transmitted through both direct and indirect contact
E.
Can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus pneumoniae
Question #63
Fifth disease ________.
A.
is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks
B.
All of the choices are correct.
C.
is caused by Parvovirus B19
D.
cannot be prevented at this time with vaccination
E.
has a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks
Question #64
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, the first person will come down with ________.
A.
herpes labialis
B.
chickenpox
C.
infectious mononucleosis
D.
herpes keratitis
E.
shingles
Question #65
Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
A.
Mechanical vectors
B.
Body fluids
C.
Direct contact
D.
Blood
E.
Fomites
Question #66
All species of Staphylococcus ________.
A.
All of thechoices are correct.
B.
lack spores
C.
have capsules
D.
produce coagulase
E.
are motile
Question #67
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except ________.
A.
meningitis
B.
scalded skin syndrome
C.
impetigo
D.
furuncles and carbuncles
E.
acne
Question #68
Transmission of tineas includes ________.
A.
soil to human
B.
animal to human
C.
All of the choices are correct.
D.
fomites to human
E.
human to human
Question #69
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is ________.
A.
enterotoxin
B.
erythrogenic toxin
C.
hemolysin
D.
toxic shock syndrome toxin
E.
exfoliative toxin
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