Microbiology 020 - General Microbiology » Winter 2022 » Final Lecture Exam
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Question #1
All of the following are monosaccharides except _____.
A.
glucose
B.
fructose
C.
deoxyribose
D.
ribose
E.
glycogen
Question #2
Helminths are _____.
A.
infectious particles
B.
bacteria
C.
molds
D.
parasitic worms
E.
protozoa
Question #3
If you were a microbiologist in 1950, which of the following scientific principles would you already know?
A.
Very little DNA is transcribed into RNA that is then translated into proteins.
B.
Aseptic techniques could reduce the number of wound infections in the surgical setting.
C.
Enzymes found in bacteria can be used to cut DNA.
D.
Biofilms can form on implanted objects in the human body and be responsible for infection.
Question #4
Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
A.
A microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
B.
Escherichia coli producing human insulin
C.
Bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors
D.
Egyptians using moldy bread on wounds
E.
Public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
Question #5
The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was _____.
A.
Ignaz Semmelweis
B.
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
C.
Robert Koch
D.
Joseph Lister
E.
Louis Pasteur
Question #6
Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed _____.
A.
autotrophic
B.
fastidious
C.
aerobic
D.
anaerobic
E.
microaerophilic
Question #7
What three components comprise the flagellum, extending from the cytoplasm to the exterior of the cell?
A.
Basal body, filament, hook
B.
Filament, basal body, hook
C.
Basal body, hook, filament
D.
Filament, hook, basal body
E.
Hook, basal body, filament
Question #8
Select those structures that are found in a gram-positive cell envelope.
A.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Outer membrane, Lipoteichoic acids
B.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Outer membrane
C.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Cell membrane
D.
Teichoic acids, Thick layer of peptidoglycan, Cell membrane, Lipoteichoic acids
Question #9
Each bacterial species represents a distinct organism that can produce viable offspring when mating with other bacteria of its kind.
A.
true
B.
false
Question #10
Endospores are ________.
A.
resistant to destruction by radiation
B.
resistant to heat and chemical destruction
C.
All of the choices are correct.
D.
metabolically inactive
E.
living structures
Question #11
Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are _____.
A.
cytopathic
B.
oncoviruses
C.
inclusion bodies
D.
chronic latent viruses
E.
syncytia
Question #12
Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are _____.
A.
oncoviruses
B.
cytopathic
C.
chronic latent viruses
D.
syncytia
E.
inclusion bodies
Question #13
Select the three methods that are used to cultivate viruses.
A.
Use of cellculture techniques, Use of animalinoculation, Inoculation ofembryonated eggs
B.
Inoculation ofembryonated eggs, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
C.
Use of animalinoculation, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
D.
Use of cellculture techniques, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
Question #14
Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _______.
A.
All of the choices infect bacteria.
B.
bacteriophages
C.
prions
D.
satellite viruses
E.
viroids
Question #15
Virus capsids are made from subunits called ______.
A.
spikes
B.
prophages
C.
capsomeres
D.
peplomers
E.
envelopes
Question #16
Facilitated diffusion is limited by________.
A.
carrier proteins in the membrane
B.
the size of the cell
C.
size of the pores in the membrane
D.
osmotic pressure
E.
substrate concentration
Question #17
What compound is the most abundant in a cell?
A.
NH 3
B.
CH 4
C.
CO 2
D.
H 2O
E.
Glucose
Question #18
A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with _______.
A.
temperatures above 37°C
B.
high acidity
C.
oxygen
D.
high salt
E.
carbon dioxide
Question #19
How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule?
A.
6
B.
4
C.
5
D.
3
Question #20
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A.
3 ATP
B.
38 ATP
C.
36 ATP
D.
24 ATP
E.
2 ATP
Question #21
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated?
A.
42 ATP
B.
38 ATP
C.
3 ATP
D.
24 ATP
E.
2 ATP
Question #22
NADH and FADH2 molecules are oxidized in which step of the aerobic respiration process?
A.
Preparation for Krebs cycle
B.
Electron transport system
C.
Glycolysis
D.
Krebs cycle
Question #23
Glycolysis ________.
A.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, without using oxygen
B.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, without using oxygen
C.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, and requires oxygen
D.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, and requires oxygen
E.
None of the choices are correct.
Question #24
A recombinant organism is one that has sustained a change in its genome through receipt of DNA from a different organism.
A.
true
B.
false
Question #25
The expression of genetic traits is the _______.
A.
phenotype
B.
genotype
C.
proteotype
D.
proteome
E.
genome
Question #26
The emerging field of synthetic biology, while offering promising breakthroughs in medicine and energy production, is not without concern. Apprehension by ethicists is understandable since ________.
A.
the ability to create life from scratch raises a multitude of issues
B.
mutations in manufactured cells will cause problems for existing organisms
C.
medical insurance costs will likely skyrocket
D.
oil and gas prices will increase as a result of the decreased demand for fossil fuels
Question #27
Which is incorrect about purines?
A.
Always paired with a specific pyrimidine
B.
Include adenine and guanine
C.
Only found in DNA, not in RNA
D.
Found within nucleotides
E.
Are nitrogenous bases
Question #28
Which of the following are correctly matched?
A.
Bacteriostatic—kills bacteria Bactericidal—kills bacteria
B.
Bacteriostatic—inhibits the growth of bacteria Bactericidal—inhibits the growth of bacteria
C.
Bactericidal—kills bacteria Bacteriostatic—inhibits the growth of bacteria
D.
Bacteriostatic—kills bacteria Bactericidal—inhibits the growth of bacteria
Question #29
Which of the following does not affect microbial nucleic acids?
A.
Moist heat
B.
Formaldehyde
C.
Ultraviolet light
D.
X rays
E.
Ethylene dioxide
Question #30
The most efficient sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are ________.
A.
160°C for 2 hours
B.
71.6°C for 15 seconds
C.
100°C for 30 minutes
D.
121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
E.
63°C for 30 minutes
Question #31
Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by _______.
A.
boiling water
B.
moist heat autoclave
C.
chlorination
D.
hydrogen peroxide
E.
pasteurization
Question #32
Each of the following affect cell walls except ________.
A.
erythromycin
B.
vancomycin
C.
penicillin
D.
cephalosporin
E.
isoniazid
Question #33
Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.
A.
true
B.
false
Question #34
The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called _______.
A.
prophylaxis
B.
chemotherapy
C.
nephrotoxicity
D.
selective toxicity
E.
synergism
Question #35
Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Exocytosis
C.
Margination
D.
Encapsulation
E.
Adhesion
Question #36
Select the body sites that serve as portals of entry for microbes.
A.
Urethra, Endocrine glands, brain
B.
Liver, Endocrine glands, brain
C.
Liver, Endocrine glands, Skin
D.
Vagina, Urethra, Mouth, Skin, Nose
Question #37
The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are ________.
A.
leukotrines
B.
interferons
C.
lysozymes
D.
complement
E.
pyrogens
Question #38
Each of the following are benefits of fever except it ________.
A.
increases phagocytosis
B.
increases the availability of iron
C.
reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply
D.
increases metabolism
E.
stimulates hematopoiesis
Question #39
Helper T cells ________.
A.
function in allergic reactions
B.
secrete antibodies
C.
directly destroy target cells
D.
suppress immune reactions
E.
activate B cells and other T cells
Question #40
Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called ________.
A.
autoantigens
B.
superantigens
C.
allergens
D.
None of the choices are correct.
E.
heterophilic antigens
Question #41
The major histocompatibility complex is ________.
A.
found on the third chromosome
B.
glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells
C.
a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins
D.
All of thechoices are correct.
E.
located in the thymus gland
Question #42
The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the ________.
A.
hinge region
B.
constant region
C.
joining region
D.
variable region
E.
light region
Question #43
The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is ________.
A.
humoralpathology
B.
hemopathology
C.
epidemiology
D.
histopathology
E.
immunopathology
Question #44
Which type(s) of hypersensitivity is IgG involved with?
A.
Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated
B.
Anaphylaxis
C.
Immune complex mediated
D.
Antibody mediated
E.
Both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated
Question #45
Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?
A.
The Arthus reaction is a local response
B.
Serum sickness is a systemic response
C.
Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues
D.
Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies
E.
Involves an immune complex reaction
Question #46
A female who is Rh – ________.
A.
All of thechoices are correct.
B.
is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status
C.
is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn
D.
inherited two dominant genes
E.
can never have an Rh+ baby
Question #47
Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n) ________.
A.
isograft
B.
hypograft
C.
allograft
D.
autograft
E.
xenograft
Question #48
A positive indirect ELISA result requires ________.
A.
a known antigen, an unknown antibody, and a known antibody
B.
two known antibodies andone known antigen
C.
All of the choices are correct.
D.
two known antibodies andone unknown antigen
E.
one known antibody, one unknown antibody, and an unknown antigen
Question #49
Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test.
A.
Specificity
B.
Cross reactions
C.
Agglutination
D.
Sensitivity
E.
Precipitation
Question #50
Animals are required for the cultivation of ________.
A.
Streptococcus
B.
Pseudomonas
C.
Clostridium
D.
Treponema pallidum
E.
Salmonella
Question #51
The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others is ________.
A.
specificity
B.
precipitation
C.
agglutination
D.
sensitivity
E.
cross reaction
Question #52
What type of test will detect whole antigens?
A.
Specificity
B.
Agglutination
C.
Cross reaction
D.
Sensitivity
E.
Precipitation
Question #53
The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is ________.
A.
agglutination
B.
sensitivity
C.
cross reaction
D.
precipitation
E.
specificity
Question #54
Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test for HIV?
A.
Immunelectrophoresis
B.
Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
C.
Immunochromatography
D.
Western blot
E.
Weil-Felix
Question #55
Choose the statement that best describes the probe used in the hybridization method of microbe identification.
A.
Unlabeledcomplementary DNA
B.
Labeledcomplementary RNA
C.
Labeled identicalDNA
D.
Labeledcomplementary DNA
Question #56
Microorganisms can be identified from a patient sample using biochemical tests based on the premise that ________.
A.
organisms will not grow on certain media types and can be selected for on others
B.
organisms display specific antigens that can be bound by color-changing antibodies that allow the clinician to locate and identify the pathogen
C.
bacteriophages infect certain bacterial cells and the specificity can be used to identify the organism
D.
organisms have a unique combination of metabolic enzymes that are displayed when color-changing dyes are utilized to demonstrate their physiological response to specific substrates
Question #57
What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?
A.
Wear insect repellent
B.
Good hygiene
C.
Ivermectin treatment
D.
Prophylactic antibiotics
Question #58
The Human Microbiome Project revealed ________.
A.
All of the choices are correct.
B.
vast numbers of organisms are found on expansive, dry areas of the skin
C.
high salt areas of the skin limit bacterial growth
D.
the skin microbiota changes constantly over time
E.
the skin microbiome is much more varied than previously thought
Question #59
Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics except ________.
A.
a rash appears on the fourth day
B.
it is a very rare form of herpesvirus
C.
causes roseola in infants and young children
D.
appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults
E.
starts with a high fever
Question #60
All Staphylococci can be differentiated from all Streptococci because only Staphylococci produce the enzyme _______ that is easily detected in the lab.
A.
exfoliative toxinB
B.
exfoliative toxinA
C.
lactase
D.
E.
catalase
F.
staphylokinase
Question #61
Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?
A.
Protects against three different viral diseases
B.
Contains toxoids
C.
Is given in early childhood
D.
None of the choices are correct.
E.
Contains attenuated virus
Question #62
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A.
Has a clear discharge
B.
Transmitted through both direct and indirect contact
C.
Can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus pneumoniae
D.
Can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E.
Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic
Question #63
Fifth disease ________.
A.
is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks
B.
has a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks
C.
is caused by Parvovirus B19
D.
All of the choices are correct.
E.
cannot be prevented at this time with vaccination
Question #64
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, the first person will come down with ________.
A.
shingles
B.
chickenpox
C.
herpes keratitis
D.
herpes labialis
E.
infectious mononucleosis
Question #65
Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
A.
Direct contact
B.
Blood
C.
Fomites
D.
Body fluids
E.
Mechanical vectors
Question #66
All species of Staphylococcus ________.
A.
lack spores
B.
have capsules
C.
All of thechoices are correct.
D.
are motile
E.
produce coagulase
Question #67
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except ________.
A.
impetigo
B.
acne
C.
scalded skin syndrome
D.
furuncles and carbuncles
E.
meningitis
Question #68
Transmission of tineas includes ________.
A.
All of the choices are correct.
B.
human to human
C.
fomites to human
D.
soil to human
E.
animal to human
Question #69
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is ________.
A.
erythrogenic toxin
B.
enterotoxin
C.
toxic shock syndrome toxin
D.
hemolysin
E.
exfoliative toxin
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