Microbiology 020 - General Microbiology » Winter 2022 » Final Lecture Exam
Need help with your exam preparation?
Get Answers to this exam for $6 USD.
Get Answers to all exams in [ Microbiology 020 - General Microbiology ] course for $25 USD.
Existing Quiz Clients Login here
Question #1
All of the following are monosaccharides except _____.
A.
deoxyribose
B.
glycogen
C.
fructose
D.
glucose
E.
ribose
Question #2
Helminths are _____.
A.
protozoa
B.
parasitic worms
C.
molds
D.
bacteria
E.
infectious particles
Question #3
If you were a microbiologist in 1950, which of the following scientific principles would you already know?
A.
Biofilms can form on implanted objects in the human body and be responsible for infection.
B.
Aseptic techniques could reduce the number of wound infections in the surgical setting.
C.
Very little DNA is transcribed into RNA that is then translated into proteins.
D.
Enzymes found in bacteria can be used to cut DNA.
Question #4
Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
A.
A microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
B.
Escherichia coli producing human insulin
C.
Egyptians using moldy bread on wounds
D.
Public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
E.
Bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors
Question #5
The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was _____.
A.
Ignaz Semmelweis
B.
Joseph Lister
C.
Robert Koch
D.
Louis Pasteur
E.
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
Question #6
Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed _____.
A.
autotrophic
B.
fastidious
C.
microaerophilic
D.
aerobic
E.
anaerobic
Question #7
What three components comprise the flagellum, extending from the cytoplasm to the exterior of the cell?
A.
Filament, basal body, hook
B.
Hook, basal body, filament
C.
Filament, hook, basal body
D.
Basal body, hook, filament
E.
Basal body, filament, hook
Question #8
Select those structures that are found in a gram-positive cell envelope.
A.
Teichoic acids, Thick layer of peptidoglycan, Cell membrane, Lipoteichoic acids
B.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Outer membrane
C.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Cell membrane
D.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Outer membrane, Lipoteichoic acids
Question #9
Each bacterial species represents a distinct organism that can produce viable offspring when mating with other bacteria of its kind.
A.
false
B.
true
Question #10
Endospores are ________.
A.
metabolically inactive
B.
resistant to destruction by radiation
C.
living structures
D.
resistant to heat and chemical destruction
E.
All of the choices are correct.
Question #11
Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are _____.
A.
cytopathic
B.
syncytia
C.
chronic latent viruses
D.
inclusion bodies
E.
oncoviruses
Question #12
Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are _____.
A.
chronic latent viruses
B.
oncoviruses
C.
syncytia
D.
cytopathic
E.
inclusion bodies
Question #13
Select the three methods that are used to cultivate viruses.
A.
Use of animalinoculation, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
B.
Use of cellculture techniques, Use of animalinoculation, Inoculation ofembryonated eggs
C.
Inoculation ofembryonated eggs, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
D.
Use of cellculture techniques, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
Question #14
Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _______.
A.
prions
B.
satellite viruses
C.
bacteriophages
D.
viroids
E.
All of the choices infect bacteria.
Question #15
Virus capsids are made from subunits called ______.
A.
prophages
B.
spikes
C.
peplomers
D.
capsomeres
E.
envelopes
Question #16
Facilitated diffusion is limited by________.
A.
osmotic pressure
B.
carrier proteins in the membrane
C.
substrate concentration
D.
the size of the cell
E.
size of the pores in the membrane
Question #17
What compound is the most abundant in a cell?
A.
Glucose
B.
H 2O
C.
CO 2
D.
CH 4
E.
NH 3
Question #18
A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with _______.
A.
high acidity
B.
oxygen
C.
high salt
D.
temperatures above 37°C
E.
carbon dioxide
Question #19
How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule?
A.
6
B.
5
C.
4
D.
3
Question #20
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A.
2 ATP
B.
36 ATP
C.
3 ATP
D.
24 ATP
E.
38 ATP
Question #21
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated?
A.
3 ATP
B.
2 ATP
C.
24 ATP
D.
38 ATP
E.
42 ATP
Question #22
NADH and FADH2 molecules are oxidized in which step of the aerobic respiration process?
A.
Preparation for Krebs cycle
B.
Glycolysis
C.
Krebs cycle
D.
Electron transport system
Question #23
Glycolysis ________.
A.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, without using oxygen
B.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, without using oxygen
C.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, and requires oxygen
D.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, and requires oxygen
E.
None of the choices are correct.
Question #24
A recombinant organism is one that has sustained a change in its genome through receipt of DNA from a different organism.
A.
false
B.
true
Question #25
The expression of genetic traits is the _______.
A.
genome
B.
phenotype
C.
proteome
D.
proteotype
E.
genotype
Question #26
The emerging field of synthetic biology, while offering promising breakthroughs in medicine and energy production, is not without concern. Apprehension by ethicists is understandable since ________.
A.
the ability to create life from scratch raises a multitude of issues
B.
mutations in manufactured cells will cause problems for existing organisms
C.
medical insurance costs will likely skyrocket
D.
oil and gas prices will increase as a result of the decreased demand for fossil fuels
Question #27
Which is incorrect about purines?
A.
Found within nucleotides
B.
Always paired with a specific pyrimidine
C.
Are nitrogenous bases
D.
Include adenine and guanine
E.
Only found in DNA, not in RNA
Question #28
Which of the following are correctly matched?
A.
Bacteriostatic—kills bacteria Bactericidal—kills bacteria
B.
Bacteriostatic—inhibits the growth of bacteria Bactericidal—inhibits the growth of bacteria
C.
Bactericidal—kills bacteria Bacteriostatic—inhibits the growth of bacteria
D.
Bacteriostatic—kills bacteria Bactericidal—inhibits the growth of bacteria
Question #29
Which of the following does not affect microbial nucleic acids?
A.
X rays
B.
Formaldehyde
C.
Ultraviolet light
D.
Moist heat
E.
Ethylene dioxide
Question #30
The most efficient sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are ________.
A.
71.6°C for 15 seconds
B.
100°C for 30 minutes
C.
160°C for 2 hours
D.
63°C for 30 minutes
E.
121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
Question #31
Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by _______.
A.
moist heat autoclave
B.
chlorination
C.
hydrogen peroxide
D.
pasteurization
E.
boiling water
Question #32
Each of the following affect cell walls except ________.
A.
isoniazid
B.
vancomycin
C.
penicillin
D.
erythromycin
E.
cephalosporin
Question #33
Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.
A.
true
B.
false
Question #34
The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called _______.
A.
synergism
B.
chemotherapy
C.
selective toxicity
D.
prophylaxis
E.
nephrotoxicity
Question #35
Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?
A.
Margination
B.
Adhesion
C.
Phagocytosis
D.
Exocytosis
E.
Encapsulation
Question #36
Select the body sites that serve as portals of entry for microbes.
A.
Urethra, Endocrine glands, brain
B.
Liver, Endocrine glands, brain
C.
Liver, Endocrine glands, Skin
D.
Vagina, Urethra, Mouth, Skin, Nose
Question #37
The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are ________.
A.
pyrogens
B.
leukotrines
C.
lysozymes
D.
interferons
E.
complement
Question #38
Each of the following are benefits of fever except it ________.
A.
increases phagocytosis
B.
increases the availability of iron
C.
increases metabolism
D.
reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply
E.
stimulates hematopoiesis
Question #39
Helper T cells ________.
A.
function in allergic reactions
B.
directly destroy target cells
C.
secrete antibodies
D.
activate B cells and other T cells
E.
suppress immune reactions
Question #40
Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called ________.
A.
autoantigens
B.
allergens
C.
superantigens
D.
heterophilic antigens
E.
None of the choices are correct.
Question #41
The major histocompatibility complex is ________.
A.
All of thechoices are correct.
B.
a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins
C.
glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells
D.
located in the thymus gland
E.
found on the third chromosome
Question #42
The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the ________.
A.
constant region
B.
joining region
C.
hinge region
D.
light region
E.
variable region
Question #43
The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is ________.
A.
immunopathology
B.
humoralpathology
C.
histopathology
D.
hemopathology
E.
epidemiology
Question #44
Which type(s) of hypersensitivity is IgG involved with?
A.
Immune complex mediated
B.
Both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated
C.
Anaphylaxis
D.
Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated
E.
Antibody mediated
Question #45
Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?
A.
Serum sickness is a systemic response
B.
Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues
C.
The Arthus reaction is a local response
D.
Involves an immune complex reaction
E.
Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies
Question #46
A female who is Rh – ________.
A.
All of thechoices are correct.
B.
can never have an Rh+ baby
C.
is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status
D.
inherited two dominant genes
E.
is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn
Question #47
Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n) ________.
A.
xenograft
B.
hypograft
C.
autograft
D.
allograft
E.
isograft
Question #48
A positive indirect ELISA result requires ________.
A.
a known antigen, an unknown antibody, and a known antibody
B.
one known antibody, one unknown antibody, and an unknown antigen
C.
two known antibodies andone known antigen
D.
two known antibodies andone unknown antigen
E.
All of the choices are correct.
Question #49
Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test.
A.
Specificity
B.
Agglutination
C.
Precipitation
D.
Cross reactions
E.
Sensitivity
Question #50
Animals are required for the cultivation of ________.
A.
Salmonella
B.
Streptococcus
C.
Pseudomonas
D.
Treponema pallidum
E.
Clostridium
Question #51
The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others is ________.
A.
sensitivity
B.
precipitation
C.
cross reaction
D.
specificity
E.
agglutination
Question #52
What type of test will detect whole antigens?
A.
Agglutination
B.
Specificity
C.
Cross reaction
D.
Sensitivity
E.
Precipitation
Question #53
The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is ________.
A.
cross reaction
B.
precipitation
C.
sensitivity
D.
agglutination
E.
specificity
Question #54
Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test for HIV?
A.
Immunelectrophoresis
B.
Immunochromatography
C.
Weil-Felix
D.
Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
E.
Western blot
Question #55
Choose the statement that best describes the probe used in the hybridization method of microbe identification.
A.
Unlabeledcomplementary DNA
B.
Labeledcomplementary DNA
C.
Labeled identicalDNA
D.
Labeledcomplementary RNA
Question #56
Microorganisms can be identified from a patient sample using biochemical tests based on the premise that ________.
A.
organisms display specific antigens that can be bound by color-changing antibodies that allow the clinician to locate and identify the pathogen
B.
organisms have a unique combination of metabolic enzymes that are displayed when color-changing dyes are utilized to demonstrate their physiological response to specific substrates
C.
bacteriophages infect certain bacterial cells and the specificity can be used to identify the organism
D.
organisms will not grow on certain media types and can be selected for on others
Question #57
What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?
A.
Ivermectin treatment
B.
Prophylactic antibiotics
C.
Good hygiene
D.
Wear insect repellent
Question #58
The Human Microbiome Project revealed ________.
A.
high salt areas of the skin limit bacterial growth
B.
the skin microbiota changes constantly over time
C.
the skin microbiome is much more varied than previously thought
D.
All of the choices are correct.
E.
vast numbers of organisms are found on expansive, dry areas of the skin
Question #59
Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics except ________.
A.
it is a very rare form of herpesvirus
B.
a rash appears on the fourth day
C.
appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults
D.
causes roseola in infants and young children
E.
starts with a high fever
Question #60
All Staphylococci can be differentiated from all Streptococci because only Staphylococci produce the enzyme _______ that is easily detected in the lab.
A.
lactase
B.
exfoliative toxinB
C.
staphylokinase
D.
catalase
E.
F.
exfoliative toxinA
Question #61
Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?
A.
Protects against three different viral diseases
B.
Is given in early childhood
C.
Contains toxoids
D.
Contains attenuated virus
E.
None of the choices are correct.
Question #62
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A.
Transmitted through both direct and indirect contact
B.
Has a clear discharge
C.
Can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus pneumoniae
D.
Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic
E.
Can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Question #63
Fifth disease ________.
A.
All of the choices are correct.
B.
has a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks
C.
is caused by Parvovirus B19
D.
is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks
E.
cannot be prevented at this time with vaccination
Question #64
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, the first person will come down with ________.
A.
infectious mononucleosis
B.
herpes labialis
C.
herpes keratitis
D.
shingles
E.
chickenpox
Question #65
Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
A.
Fomites
B.
Mechanical vectors
C.
Direct contact
D.
Blood
E.
Body fluids
Question #66
All species of Staphylococcus ________.
A.
produce coagulase
B.
lack spores
C.
are motile
D.
have capsules
E.
All of thechoices are correct.
Question #67
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except ________.
A.
acne
B.
meningitis
C.
furuncles and carbuncles
D.
impetigo
E.
scalded skin syndrome
Question #68
Transmission of tineas includes ________.
A.
All of the choices are correct.
B.
human to human
C.
animal to human
D.
soil to human
E.
fomites to human
Question #69
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is ________.
A.
enterotoxin
B.
exfoliative toxin
C.
toxic shock syndrome toxin
D.
hemolysin
E.
erythrogenic toxin
Need help with your exam preparation?
Get Answers to this exam for $6 USD.
Get Answers to all exams in [ Microbiology 020 - General Microbiology ] course for $25 USD.
Existing Quiz Clients Login here