Microbiology 020 - General Microbiology » Winter 2022 » Final Lecture Exam
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Question #1
All of the following are monosaccharides except _____.
A.
ribose
B.
glucose
C.
glycogen
D.
deoxyribose
E.
fructose
Question #2
Helminths are _____.
A.
infectious particles
B.
parasitic worms
C.
bacteria
D.
protozoa
E.
molds
Question #3
If you were a microbiologist in 1950, which of the following scientific principles would you already know?
A.
Very little DNA is transcribed into RNA that is then translated into proteins.
B.
Aseptic techniques could reduce the number of wound infections in the surgical setting.
C.
Biofilms can form on implanted objects in the human body and be responsible for infection.
D.
Enzymes found in bacteria can be used to cut DNA.
Question #4
Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
A.
A microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
B.
Public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
C.
Escherichia coli producing human insulin
D.
Egyptians using moldy bread on wounds
E.
Bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors
Question #5
The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was _____.
A.
Joseph Lister
B.
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
C.
Ignaz Semmelweis
D.
Robert Koch
E.
Louis Pasteur
Question #6
Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed _____.
A.
fastidious
B.
anaerobic
C.
aerobic
D.
autotrophic
E.
microaerophilic
Question #7
What three components comprise the flagellum, extending from the cytoplasm to the exterior of the cell?
A.
Hook, basal body, filament
B.
Filament, hook, basal body
C.
Basal body, hook, filament
D.
Filament, basal body, hook
E.
Basal body, filament, hook
Question #8
Select those structures that are found in a gram-positive cell envelope.
A.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Outer membrane
B.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Cell membrane
C.
Thin layer of peptidoglycan, Lipopolysaccharide, Outer membrane, Lipoteichoic acids
D.
Teichoic acids, Thick layer of peptidoglycan, Cell membrane, Lipoteichoic acids
Question #9
Each bacterial species represents a distinct organism that can produce viable offspring when mating with other bacteria of its kind.
A.
false
B.
true
Question #10
Endospores are ________.
A.
metabolically inactive
B.
All of the choices are correct.
C.
living structures
D.
resistant to destruction by radiation
E.
resistant to heat and chemical destruction
Question #11
Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are _____.
A.
inclusion bodies
B.
oncoviruses
C.
chronic latent viruses
D.
cytopathic
E.
syncytia
Question #12
Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are _____.
A.
inclusion bodies
B.
chronic latent viruses
C.
oncoviruses
D.
syncytia
E.
cytopathic
Question #13
Select the three methods that are used to cultivate viruses.
A.
Use of animalinoculation, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
B.
Use of cellculture techniques, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
C.
Inoculation ofembryonated eggs, Use of enriched broth media, Use of enrichedagar media
D.
Use of cellculture techniques, Use of animalinoculation, Inoculation ofembryonated eggs
Question #14
Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _______.
A.
All of the choices infect bacteria.
B.
viroids
C.
satellite viruses
D.
prions
E.
bacteriophages
Question #15
Virus capsids are made from subunits called ______.
A.
envelopes
B.
peplomers
C.
prophages
D.
spikes
E.
capsomeres
Question #16
Facilitated diffusion is limited by________.
A.
the size of the cell
B.
size of the pores in the membrane
C.
carrier proteins in the membrane
D.
substrate concentration
E.
osmotic pressure
Question #17
What compound is the most abundant in a cell?
A.
NH 3
B.
CO 2
C.
Glucose
D.
H 2O
E.
CH 4
Question #18
A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with _______.
A.
high acidity
B.
oxygen
C.
temperatures above 37°C
D.
carbon dioxide
E.
high salt
Question #19
How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule?
A.
6
B.
5
C.
4
D.
3
Question #20
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A.
24 ATP
B.
3 ATP
C.
36 ATP
D.
2 ATP
E.
38 ATP
Question #21
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated?
A.
24 ATP
B.
3 ATP
C.
2 ATP
D.
42 ATP
E.
38 ATP
Question #22
NADH and FADH2 molecules are oxidized in which step of the aerobic respiration process?
A.
Electron transport system
B.
Krebs cycle
C.
Preparation for Krebs cycle
D.
Glycolysis
Question #23
Glycolysis ________.
A.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, and requires oxygen
B.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, without using oxygen
C.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, without using oxygen
D.
None of the choices are correct.
E.
uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, and requires oxygen
Question #24
A recombinant organism is one that has sustained a change in its genome through receipt of DNA from a different organism.
A.
false
B.
true
Question #25
The expression of genetic traits is the _______.
A.
proteotype
B.
proteome
C.
phenotype
D.
genome
E.
genotype
Question #26
The emerging field of synthetic biology, while offering promising breakthroughs in medicine and energy production, is not without concern. Apprehension by ethicists is understandable since ________.
A.
oil and gas prices will increase as a result of the decreased demand for fossil fuels
B.
mutations in manufactured cells will cause problems for existing organisms
C.
medical insurance costs will likely skyrocket
D.
the ability to create life from scratch raises a multitude of issues
Question #27
Which is incorrect about purines?
A.
Found within nucleotides
B.
Include adenine and guanine
C.
Only found in DNA, not in RNA
D.
Always paired with a specific pyrimidine
E.
Are nitrogenous bases
Question #28
Which of the following are correctly matched?
A.
Bacteriostatic—kills bacteria Bactericidal—kills bacteria
B.
Bactericidal—kills bacteria Bacteriostatic—inhibits the growth of bacteria
C.
Bacteriostatic—inhibits the growth of bacteria Bactericidal—inhibits the growth of bacteria
D.
Bacteriostatic—kills bacteria Bactericidal—inhibits the growth of bacteria
Question #29
Which of the following does not affect microbial nucleic acids?
A.
X rays
B.
Ultraviolet light
C.
Ethylene dioxide
D.
Formaldehyde
E.
Moist heat
Question #30
The most efficient sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are ________.
A.
160°C for 2 hours
B.
63°C for 30 minutes
C.
100°C for 30 minutes
D.
71.6°C for 15 seconds
E.
121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
Question #31
Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by _______.
A.
boiling water
B.
pasteurization
C.
hydrogen peroxide
D.
chlorination
E.
moist heat autoclave
Question #32
Each of the following affect cell walls except ________.
A.
erythromycin
B.
isoniazid
C.
penicillin
D.
cephalosporin
E.
vancomycin
Question #33
Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.
A.
false
B.
true
Question #34
The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called _______.
A.
synergism
B.
chemotherapy
C.
prophylaxis
D.
selective toxicity
E.
nephrotoxicity
Question #35
Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Exocytosis
C.
Adhesion
D.
Margination
E.
Encapsulation
Question #36
Select the body sites that serve as portals of entry for microbes.
A.
Liver, Endocrine glands, brain
B.
Liver, Endocrine glands, Skin
C.
Urethra, Endocrine glands, brain
D.
Vagina, Urethra, Mouth, Skin, Nose
Question #37
A.
interferons
B.
leukotrines
C.
lysozymes
D.
complement
E.
pyrogens
Question #38
Each of the following are benefits of fever except it ________.
A.
increases metabolism
B.
reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply
C.
increases phagocytosis
D.
stimulates hematopoiesis
E.
increases the availability of iron
Question #39
Helper T cells ________.
A.
function in allergic reactions
B.
activate B cells and other T cells
C.
secrete antibodies
D.
suppress immune reactions
E.
directly destroy target cells
Question #40
Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called ________.
A.
heterophilic antigens
B.
superantigens
C.
None of the choices are correct.
D.
allergens
E.
autoantigens
Question #41
The major histocompatibility complex is ________.
A.
found on the third chromosome
B.
All of thechoices are correct.
C.
located in the thymus gland
D.
glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells
E.
a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins
Question #42
The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the ________.
A.
light region
B.
constant region
C.
variable region
D.
joining region
E.
hinge region
Question #43
The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is ________.
A.
immunopathology
B.
epidemiology
C.
histopathology
D.
hemopathology
E.
humoralpathology
Question #44
Which type(s) of hypersensitivity is IgG involved with?
A.
Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated
B.
Immune complex mediated
C.
Anaphylaxis
D.
Both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated
E.
Antibody mediated
Question #45
Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?
A.
Involves an immune complex reaction
B.
The Arthus reaction is a local response
C.
Serum sickness is a systemic response
D.
Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues
E.
Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies
Question #46
A female who is Rh – ________.
A.
inherited two dominant genes
B.
is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn
C.
can never have an Rh+ baby
D.
is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status
E.
All of thechoices are correct.
Question #47
Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n) ________.
A.
hypograft
B.
xenograft
C.
isograft
D.
autograft
E.
allograft
Question #48
A positive indirect ELISA result requires ________.
A.
All of the choices are correct.
B.
one known antibody, one unknown antibody, and an unknown antigen
C.
two known antibodies andone unknown antigen
D.
a known antigen, an unknown antibody, and a known antibody
E.
two known antibodies andone known antigen
Question #49
Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test.
A.
Specificity
B.
Agglutination
C.
Sensitivity
D.
Precipitation
E.
Cross reactions
Question #50
Animals are required for the cultivation of ________.
A.
Pseudomonas
B.
Clostridium
C.
Treponema pallidum
D.
Salmonella
E.
Streptococcus
Question #51
The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others is ________.
A.
specificity
B.
precipitation
C.
cross reaction
D.
agglutination
E.
sensitivity
Question #52
What type of test will detect whole antigens?
A.
Sensitivity
B.
Agglutination
C.
Specificity
D.
Precipitation
E.
Cross reaction
Question #53
The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is ________.
A.
precipitation
B.
specificity
C.
sensitivity
D.
cross reaction
E.
agglutination
Question #54
Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test for HIV?
A.
Western blot
B.
Weil-Felix
C.
Immunochromatography
D.
Immunelectrophoresis
E.
Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Question #55
Choose the statement that best describes the probe used in the hybridization method of microbe identification.
A.
Labeled identicalDNA
B.
Labeledcomplementary RNA
C.
Labeledcomplementary DNA
D.
Unlabeledcomplementary DNA
Question #56
Microorganisms can be identified from a patient sample using biochemical tests based on the premise that ________.
A.
organisms display specific antigens that can be bound by color-changing antibodies that allow the clinician to locate and identify the pathogen
B.
bacteriophages infect certain bacterial cells and the specificity can be used to identify the organism
C.
organisms have a unique combination of metabolic enzymes that are displayed when color-changing dyes are utilized to demonstrate their physiological response to specific substrates
D.
organisms will not grow on certain media types and can be selected for on others
Question #57
What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?
A.
Good hygiene
B.
Wear insect repellent
C.
Prophylactic antibiotics
D.
Ivermectin treatment
Question #58
The Human Microbiome Project revealed ________.
A.
high salt areas of the skin limit bacterial growth
B.
the skin microbiota changes constantly over time
C.
the skin microbiome is much more varied than previously thought
D.
vast numbers of organisms are found on expansive, dry areas of the skin
E.
All of the choices are correct.
Question #59
Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics except ________.
A.
appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults
B.
a rash appears on the fourth day
C.
starts with a high fever
D.
causes roseola in infants and young children
E.
it is a very rare form of herpesvirus
Question #60
All Staphylococci can be differentiated from all Streptococci because only Staphylococci produce the enzyme _______ that is easily detected in the lab.
A.
staphylokinase
B.
lactase
C.
catalase
D.
exfoliative toxinB
E.
exfoliative toxinA
F.
Question #61
Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?
A.
Contains toxoids
B.
Contains attenuated virus
C.
Is given in early childhood
D.
None of the choices are correct.
E.
Protects against three different viral diseases
Question #62
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A.
Has a clear discharge
B.
Transmitted through both direct and indirect contact
C.
Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic
D.
Can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E.
Can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus pneumoniae
Question #63
Fifth disease ________.
A.
is caused by Parvovirus B19
B.
All of the choices are correct.
C.
cannot be prevented at this time with vaccination
D.
is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks
E.
has a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks
Question #64
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, the first person will come down with ________.
A.
herpes keratitis
B.
infectious mononucleosis
C.
herpes labialis
D.
shingles
E.
chickenpox
Question #65
Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
A.
Direct contact
B.
Blood
C.
Mechanical vectors
D.
Fomites
E.
Body fluids
Question #66
All species of Staphylococcus ________.
A.
All of thechoices are correct.
B.
produce coagulase
C.
lack spores
D.
are motile
E.
have capsules
Question #67
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except ________.
A.
furuncles and carbuncles
B.
scalded skin syndrome
C.
acne
D.
meningitis
E.
impetigo
Question #68
Transmission of tineas includes ________.
A.
fomites to human
B.
human to human
C.
All of the choices are correct.
D.
soil to human
E.
animal to human
Question #69
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is ________.
A.
hemolysin
B.
enterotoxin
C.
erythrogenic toxin
D.
toxic shock syndrome toxin
E.
exfoliative toxin
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