MOA 193 - Current Procedural Term Coding » Spring 2022 » Exam 2
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Question #1
Codes and guidelines for reporting renal allotransplantation are structured to include:
A.
Unilateral or bilateral nephrectomy of the donor and Backbench work
B.
Backbench work
C.
None of the choices
D.
Unilateral or bilateral nephrectomy of the donor
Question #2
Which of the following refers to the recording of electrical activity generated in muscle that is often used for diagnostic purposes within the urinary tract?
A.
Complex uroflowmetry
B.
Complex cystometrogram
C.
Hydronephrosis
D.
Electromyography
Question #3
Simple and complex uroflowmetry procedures are performed to gather information on:
A.
The pressure of flow from the bladder
B.
The volume of urine storage
C.
Bladder sensation and capacity
D.
The scope of urine production
Question #4
Which of the following terms is used to code the swelling of a kidney due to a build-up of urine?
A.
Hydronephrosis
B.
Hydrocephalus
C.
Hypospadias
D.
Urethrotomy
Question #5
How many cores does the standard prostate biopsy using a transrectal approach involve?
A.
3 cores for tissue sampling
B.
35 to 60 cores for tissue sampling
C.
1 core for tissue sampling
D.
6 to 12 cores for tissue sampling
Question #6
Codes for the insertion of a bladder catheter depend upon whether the catheter is used for:
A.
Insertion of permanent catheter
B.
Catheterization for instillation of medication
C.
Intermittent catheterization
D.
None of these
Question #7
Why are endoscopic procedures of the urinary structures most often performed?
A.
To perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures
B.
To remove obstructions and strictures
C.
To investigate renal insufficiency
D.
To determine whether obstructions are benign or malignant
Question #8
When a preliminary endoscopic procedure of the urinary system is performed followed by a more extensive endoscopic procedure due to anatomical locations, what is the correct coding procedure?
A.
Code with one CPT code using the more complex procedure
B.
Append modifier 51 for multiple procedures to the second CPT code
C.
Use an add-on code for the second more extensive procedure
D.
Append modifier 59 for separate sections to each of the codes used
Question #9
Cystourethroscopy codes may be described as including:
A.
Removal of obstructive calculi
B.
Stricture release
C.
None of these
D.
Fulguration and/or resection
Question #10
Which of the following is a common cause of stricture or blockage in different sites within the urinary tract?
A.
None of these
B.
Chemically induced calculi and Concretion of mineral salts forming inside an organ or duct
C.
Concretion of mineral salts forming inside an organ or duct
D.
Chemically induced calculi
Question #11
A surgeon performs a repair of bilateral strangulated recurrent femoral hernias. What is the correct code to report?
A.
49553 26
B.
49555 51
C.
49550 50
D.
49557 50
Question #12
A diagnostic colonoscopy and a diagnostic EGD are performed on the same patient by the same physician on the same day, but not during the same session. How would the physician code for both procedures?
A.
45378, 43235 51
B.
45330, 43200 59
C.
45378, 43235 59
D.
45330, 43200 51
Question #13
If fluid from the peritoneal cavity is drained by the use of a laparoscope after being detected through ultrasound, what is the correct code to report?
A.
49040
B.
49320
C.
49020
D.
49322
Question #14
How is laser destruction of polyps during a proctosigmoidoscopy reported?
A.
45321
B.
45315
C.
45320
D.
45308
Question #15
Esophageal repair may include which of the following procedures?
A.
Open laparoscopic esophagogastric fundoplasty
B.
Open paraesophageal repairs
C.
Esophagomyotomy
D.
None of these
Question #16
When coding for a liver transplant, a coder must choose from which of the following options?
A.
Two types of allotransplantation
B.
Three different types of backbench work
C.
Two different types of backbench work
D.
Four different types of backbench work
Question #17
The operative report for backbench preparation for an intestine allograft should document the mobilization and fashioning of which of the following anatomical structures?
A.
Mesenteric artery and vein
B.
Gallbladder ductwork
C.
Pancreas and bile duct
D.
Pancreas and spleen
Question #18
Standard backbench work to prepare a pancreas allograft includes which of the following procedures?
A.
Y-graft arterial anastomoses
B.
Ligation of mesenteric vessels
C.
Splenectomy, duodenotomy, and ligation of bile duct
D.
All of these
Question #19
When it is necessary to lyse multiple adhesions when performing another surgical procedure, the adhesions should be:
A.
Not reported unless their removal constitutes the only surgical procedure in that session
B.
Considered as a part of the main code and not reported separately
C.
Reported separately
D.
Reported with one code regardless of the number or location
Question #20
A removal of an appendix may be considered which of the following procedures?
A.
Open surgical appendectomy
B.
None of these
C.
Incidental appendectomy
D.
Laparoscopic appendectomy
E.
All of these
Question #21
If an operative report reads, “triple coronary artery bypass (left internal mammary artery to left anterior descending: saphenous vein to diagonal: saphenous vein to right posterior descending),” what is the correct code(s) to report?
A.
33533
B.
33533, +33518
C.
33534, +33518
D.
+33518 x 2
Question #22
If an operative report reads, “Valvuloplasty, mitral valve and patient maintain on cardiopulmonary bypass during the procedure,” what is the correct code to report?
A.
33420
B.
33427
C.
33426
D.
33425
Question #23
A 32-month-old toddler has been diagnosed with leukemia and will need staged chemotherapy. To perform this chemotherapy in the best manner for the child’s comfort, a PICC line needs to be placed. How is the placement of the PICC line coded?
A.
36555
B.
36569
C.
36568
D.
36580
Question #24
For a CABG procedure, the left internal mammary artery was anastomosed to the left anterior descending coronary artery and to the diagonal. A venous graft from the aorta to the marginal circumflex artery completes the procedure. What is the correct code(s) to report?
A.
33534, 33517
B.
33535, 33516
C.
33517
D.
33534
Question #25
Defibrillator threshold testing performed when a subcutaneous ICD is inserted is:
A.
Included in the initial ICD implantation code
B.
Included in the initial ICD implantation code and not reported separately
C.
None of the choices
D.
Not reported separately
Question #26
It is common to insert permanent pacemakers using which of the following approaches?
A.
Open abdominal
B.
Transvenous
C.
Open thoracic
D.
Atrial
Question #27
Certain CPT codes used to report the treatment or evaluation of cardiovascular patients are found in which of the following codebook sections?
A.
Integumentary System section
B.
Surgery section
C.
Radiology section
D.
Medicine section
Question #28
When reporting skin pocket relocation codes during a repositioning of a previously implanted pacemaker, which of the following procedures are reported separately?
A.
Transvenous dual electrode replacement
B.
Backbench work to prepare the new pocket
C.
Atrial dual electrode replacement
D.
Incision and drainage, debridement, and complex repairs
Question #29
What may a left ventricular pacing catheter be called?
A.
Biventricular lead
B.
Coronary sinus lead and Biventricular lead
C.
None of the choices
D.
Coronary sinus lead
Question #30
A patient with two malignant lesions on the neck, one 0.5 cm and the other 0.8 cm, had them both destroyed by electrosurgery. What is the correct code(s) to report?
A.
17000, +17003
B.
11620, 11621
C.
17270, 17271
D.
17272
Question #31
In which of the following cases would a coder add the lengths of the defects?
A.
Full- and split-thickness skin grafts
B.
Removal of benign lesions from neck
C.
Simple and intermediate closures of lacerations on arm and face
D.
Simple closure of two lacerations on the trunk
Question #32
Cutting into body tissue or an organ is referred to as a(n):
A.
Excision
B.
Wound shaving
C.
Debridement
D.
Incision
Question #33
A process used to remove necrotic and/or foreign material from body tissue by invasive methods is called:
A.
Shaving
B.
Debridement
C.
Closed excision
D.
Open incision
Question #34
In a debridement process, how is the depth of debridement defined?
A.
A sq cm formula for the combined depth, width, and length of the affected area
B.
As extending from the skin level to the bone
C.
None of these
D.
A diameter/radius of the area being debrided
Question #35
How is paring or cutting benign hyperkeratotic lesions reported?
A.
None of these
B.
Separate codes are reported per site.
C.
One code from the series for paring or cutting is reported per episode.
D.
One code for a total of the sq cm removed is reported.
Question #36
Methods of removing skin tags can include which of the following?
A.
Electrosurgical destruction
B.
Scissors or sharp tool
C.
All of these
D.
Ligature strangulation
Question #37
Shaving, the removal by sharp transverse incision or horizontal slicing of lesions without full-thickness excision are limited to which of the following lesions?
A.
Epidermal lesions
B.
Intra-organ lesions
C.
Dermal lesions
D.
Subcutaneous lesions
Question #38
An excision of a lesion is a full-thickness removal including margins and includes which of the following types of repairs?
A.
Simple repairs
B.
Complex repairs
C.
Intermediate repairs
D.
Layered repairs
Question #39
An anesthesiologist performs monitored anesthesia care for bronchoscopy with biopsy on a patient with a history of congestive heart failure. What is the correct coding for this situation?
A.
00520
B.
00521
C.
00523
D.
00522
Question #40
Which of the following terms describes blood oxygen concentration?
A.
Mass spectrometry (MS)
B.
Swan Ganz
C.
Oximetry
D.
Capnography
Question #41
Which of the following terms describes the passing of a thin tube or catheter into the right side of the heart and the arteries leading to the lungs?
A.
Oximetry
B.
Mass Spectrometry (MS)
C.
Capnography
D.
Swan Ganz
Question #42
A.
Local anesthesia
B.
Oximetry
C.
Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC)
D.
General anesthesia
Question #43
Special anesthesia modifiers may be used along with other CPT modifiers to accurately report a patient’s physical status through the period of anesthesia. How many levels of physical status modifiers are there?
A.
Five
B.
Eight
C.
Six
D.
Three
Question #44
Which of the following is the correct physical status modifier to use when reporting a patient with a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
A.
P2
B.
P6
C.
P4
D.
P3
Question #45
Critical Care Services codes (99291, 99292) may be reported on the same day for a patient by the same physician as subsequent hospital care codes (99231, 99232, 99233). Which of the following codes might also be reported by that physician for that patient on that same day?
A.
92950
B.
99281
C.
99304
D.
99241
Question #46
Which of the following categories pertain to hospital services?
A.
Hospital Observation Services (99217-99220, 99224-99226)
B.
Emergency Department Services (99281-99288)
C.
Initial Hospital Care (99221-99223)
D.
Home Services (99341-99350)
Question #47
If a patient is sent to the hospital for observation, the hospital staff determines whether that patient should be:
A.
Transferred to another facility
B.
Sent home
C.
Admitted to the hospital
D.
All of these
Question #48
If a patient is admitted to the hospital for care, the visit or episode is considered which of the following?
A.
Observation
B.
All of these
C.
Initial hospital or inpatient admission
D.
Subsequent hospital care
Question #49
Surgical procedures performed on the breast are considered to be:
A.
Malignant
B.
Unilateral
C.
Bilateral
D.
Benign
Question #50
Approaches for breast procedures can be:
A.
Laparoscopic
B.
With fluoroscopy
C.
Percutaneous and open
D.
With preoperative radiological markers
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