Bio 1010 - General Biology » Summer 2022 » Unit 4 Exam

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Question #1
Genes are carried on ______.
A.   centrosomes
B.   centromeres
C.   chromosomes
D.   chiasma
E.   nuclei
Question #2
A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.
A.   centrosomes
B.   genes
C.   chromatids
D.   genomes
E.   centromeres
Question #3
At the end of meiosis, there are _______ cells.
A.   four
B.   one
C.   two
D.   five
E.   three
Question #4
How many autosomes do humans have?
A.   46
B.   23
C.   2
D.   44
E.   22
Question #5
Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty. In relation to sex chromosomes, Amanda would be designated as ______.
A.   XOY
B.   YOX
C.   XO
D.   XYY
E.   XY
Question #6
At the end of meiosis, the resulting cells are
A.   prepared to replicate chromosomes.
B.   genetically different.
C.   hexaploid
D.   Identical in all ways.
E.   genetically identical.
Question #7
Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.
A.   chromatin
B.   centriole
C.   centromere
D.   centrosome
E.   spindle
Question #8
How many chromosomes can a gamete possess as a result of nondisjunction?
A.   n + 1 only
B.   n + 1 or n - 1
C.   2 n + 1 or 2 n - 1
D.   2 n - 1 only
E.   2 n + 1 or n - 1
Question #9
Chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes are called ______.
A.   allosomes
B.   centromeres
C.   nonsexosomes
D.   autosomes
E.   centrosomes
Question #10
All the offspring of a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant have pink flowers. This means that the allele for red flowers is ______ to the allele for white flowers.
A.   pleiotropic
B.   recessive
C.   incompletely dominant
D.   codominant
E.   dominant
Question #11
What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?
A.   Dd
B.   dd
C.   DD
D.   DI
Question #12
A color-blind woman mates with a man who is not color-blind. All of the sons and none of the daughters are color-blind. What is the best explanation of this result?
A.   The gene for color vision is completely dominant to the gene for sex determination.
B.   The gene for color vision is linked to the Y chromosome.
C.   The gene for color vision is codominant with the gene for sex determination.
D.   The gene for color vision is incompletely dominant to the gene for sex determination.
E.   The gene for color vision is linked to the X chromosome.
Question #13
An individual heterozygous for cystic fibrosis ______.
A.   cannot have children with cystic fibrosis
B.   will have children who are all carriers of cystic fibrosis
C.   cannot reproduce
D.   has cystic fibrosis
E.   is a carrier
Question #14
What is the key to the recognition of codominance?
A.   The alleles affect more than one trait.
B.   The dominant allele is not always expressed.
C.   The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.
D.   The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.
E.   The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.
Question #15
Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an X-linked dominant. What is the expected outcome of a cross between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?
A.   Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
B.   Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
C.   All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
D.   All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
E.   Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
Question #16
The nucleotide unit of a DNA molecule has three components: a phosphate group, a sugar, and which of the following?
A.   a carbon-containing base
B.   a promoter
C.   another sugar-phosphate strand
D.   a nitrogen-containing acid
E.   a nitrogen-containing base
Question #17
The manipulation of organisms' genetic material by adding, deleting, or transplanting genes from one organism to another is known as:
A.   CRISPR.
B.   a transgenic organism.
C.   genetic engineering.
D.   cloning.
E.   polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Question #18
If you were to compare a single gene to a cookbook, it would be analogous to:
A.   the sequence of letters in a recipe in the cookbook.
B.   one specific recipe in the cookbook.
C.   a chapter on desserts in the cookbook.
D.   a single step in one recipe in the cookbook.
E.   the entire cookbook.
Question #19
Jennifer is concerned about developing breast cancer and decides to do a screening for BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations. Which of the following conclusions could be drawn from the results of her screening?
A.   A positive result means that she has a greater risk of developing breast cancer than someone without the BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation.
B.   A positive result means that she would definitely develop breast cancer during her lifetime.
C.   The results of the screening cannot determine whether an individual has an elevated risk of developing breast cancer, only whether or not the mutation is present.
D.   A negative result means that she would never develop breast cancer during her lifetime.
E.   A negative result means that she has a greater risk of developing breast cancer than someone who carries the BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation.
Question #20
DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.
A.   nucleic acid
B.   fatty acid
C.   carbohydrate
D.   nucleotide
E.   amino acid
Question #21
A group of scientists are attempting to remove a gene from bacterial cells that confers resistance to the common antibiotic, penicillin. Which tool would be the most precise and efficient for this task?
A.   using CRISPR to find and cut a specific sequence of bacterial DNA
B.   creating a gene library from bacterial DNA
C.   using PCR to amplify bacterial DNA
D.   using restriction enzymes to chop bacterial DNA into small pieces
E.   cloning bacterial DNA
Question #22
Which of the following is characteristic of a DNA double helix?
A.   The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.
B.   The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal to the amount of cytosine.
C.   The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine.
D.   The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of uracil, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.
E.   The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of uracil.
Question #23
Chromosomes are duplicated before mitosis and meiosis.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #24
Mitosis is always followed by meiosis
A.   False
B.   True
Question #25
The chances that any two siblings will be genetically identical is astronomically small.
A.   False
B.   True
Question #26
A given gene can have only two alleles
A.   True
B.   False
Question #27
Protein synthesis occurs in the Golgi body.
A.   True
B.   False
Question #28
Proteins are produced directly from DNA, with no intermediate steps.
A.   False
B.   True

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