Pathophysiology 370 - Pathophysiology » Fall 2022 » Week 3 Check Your Understanding Assignment

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Question #1
Which clinical manifestation differentiates myocardial infarction (MI) from angina pectoris?
A.   Chest pain initiated by exercise. Chest pain aggravated by coughing. Radiating chest pain
B.   Elevated serum levels of troponin. Chest pain initiated by exercise . Chest pain aggravated by coughing.
C.   ST-segment changes on the ECG. Elevated serum levels of troponin. Radiating chest pain
D.   Chest pain initiated by exercise. Chest pain aggravated by coughing.
Question #2
Which is a major determinant of diastolic blood pressure?
A.   Preload
B.   Vascular resistance
C.   Stroke volume
D.   Heart rate
Question #3
In a patient with mitral stenosis, cardiac catheterization findings would indicate increased pressure in the
A.   Right ventricle
B.   Left atria
C.   Right atria
D.   Left ventricle
Question #4
Atherosclerosis predisposes to a number of processes that are factors in myocardial ischemia. These processes include
A.   Hemorrhage
B.   Thrombus formation
C.   ventricular dysrhythmia
D.   Coronary dilation
Question #5
Cardiac output is the product of both
A.   Mean arterial pressure (MAP) and systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
B.   Stroke volume and heart rate
C.   Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and pulse pressure
D.   Pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure (MAP)
Question #6
A patient with heart failure reports awakening intermittently with shortness of breath. Which terms appropriately describes this clinical manifestation?
A.   Paroxysmal nocturnal
B.   Bradypnea
C.   Dyspnea
D.   Cyanosis
Question #7
Which condition may result in chronic pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right-sided heart failure?
A.   Acute myocarditis
B.   Mitral valve stenosis
C.   Aortic valve stenosis
D.   Aortic insufficiency
Question #8
What is the marker of choice for detecting a myocardial infarction?
A.   Elevated T waves on an ECG
B.   Elevated serum levels of cardiac troponin
C.   Elevated serum levels of C-MB
D.   Elevated serum levels of cardiac myogoblin
Question #9
Risk factors for the development of high blood pressure are which of the following?
A.   Weight, Chronic illness
B.   Race, Age, Diet, and Weight
C.   Race, Diet, Chronic illness
D.   Age, Diet, Chronic illness
Question #10
The nurse includes what information when educating a client concerning a first-degree heart block?
A.   Bradycardia is a common characteristic. First-degree blocks are rare.
B.   Congenital heart defects are often the cause of the disorder. First-degree blocks are rare.
C.   An electrocardiogram is used to identify this conduction disorder. Congenital heart defects are often the cause of the disorder. The condition is monitored, but not actively managed.
D.   Bradycardia is a common characteristic. First-degree blocks are rare. The condition is monitored, but not actively managed.
Question #11
The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) alters blood pressure in response to
A.   Decreased perfusion to the lungs
B.   Decreased perfusion to the liver
C.   Decreased flow to the brain
D.   Decreased perfusion to the kidney
Question #12
Atrial fibrillation is best described as when
A.   The P wave precedes, follows, or is buried in the QRS complex
B.   Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by an irregular ventricular rate
C.   An atrial rate of 240 to 350 beats/min in a sawtooth pattern of atrial depolarization is seen
D.   P waves occurs earlier than normal, preceded by a P wave with a normal QRS configuration
Question #13
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) can be indirectly estimated with the use of which blood pressure measurement?
A.   Systolic pressure
B.   Diastolic pressure
C.   Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
D.   Pulmonary arterial pressure
Question #14
Which type of shock is characterized by generalized vasodilation and peripheral pooling of blood?
A.   Cardiogenic , Hypovolemic, Septic
B.   Cardiogenic , Hypovolemic
C.   Cardiogenic , Neurogenic
D.   Septic, Neurogenic, Anaphylactic
Question #15
The shift to anaerobic metabolism in shock results in
A.   Decreased oxygen utilization
B.   Decreased hydrogen ion production
C.   Metabolic alkalosis
D.   Increased lactate production
Question #16
Which best defines systolic blood pressure?
A.   Is the sole function of aortic compliance
B.   Occurs during passive elastic recoil of the aorta
C.   Occurs during ventricular contraction
D.   Averages 70 mm of Hg
Question #17
Which describes a pathologic manifestation of neurogenic shock?
A.   Loss of sympathetic activation of arteriolar smooth muscle
B.   Release of vasodilatory mediators such as histamine into the circulation
C.   Increased sympathetic nervous stimulation
D.   Massive immune system activation

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