MOA 183 - Intro to Health Insurance » Fall 2022 » Midterm Exam Chapter 2 to 9 & 16
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Question #1
Managed care systems ensure the delivery of high-quality care while managing costs through:
A.
provider networks and regular premium increases.
B.
discounted fees for services and mandatory high deductibles across all health plans.
C.
prohibiting the use of out-of-network providers.
D.
provider networks and discounted fees for services.
Question #2
To determine the amount due from a patient, it is necessary to know the:
A.
billed amount.
B.
allowed amount.
C.
diagnostic code.
D.
adjusted amount.
Question #3
In a managed care organization (MCO), a primary care physician (PCP) is any of the following EXCEPT:
A.
family practitioner.
B.
internal medicine doctor.
C.
dermatologist.
D.
general practitioner.
Question #4
By accepting lower payments from MCOs, physicians are forced to see more patients each day in order to:
A.
enroll more members in the health plan.
B.
deliver MCO-required preventive care.
C.
minimize malpractice suits.
D.
maintain their income.
Question #5
All of the following are types of health maintenance organizations (HMOs) EXCEPT the:
A.
open access model.
B.
preferred provider model.
C.
group model.
D.
individual practice association.
Question #6
A managed care contract should clearly state all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
how much the physician will be paid for services.
B.
the list of employers with MCO contracts.
C.
when payment should be received from the MCO.
D.
the time limit for submitting claims to the MCO.
Question #7
A medical office specialist must do all the following EXCEPT:
A.
explain the ACO to the patient.
B.
be familiar with managed care terms.
C.
know the Patient Bill of Rights.
D.
promote the provider network.
Question #8
The schedule of benefits section of a managed care contract lists the:
A.
deductible and coinsurance amounts that patients must pay.
B.
medical services covered under the managed care plan.
C.
providers in the contracted network.
D.
benefits of participating in the managed care plan.
Question #9
In plans that require the primary care physician (PCP) to play a gatekeeper role, the PCP is given incentives to:
A.
see as many patients each day as possible, even if this means less time with each patient.
B.
expand office hours and/or staff to permit more patients to be seen each day.
C.
treat the patient as much as possible without a specialist referral unless absolutely necessary.
D.
make frequent referrals to contracted network specialists.
Question #10
The credentialing process of a managed care organization (MCO) will examine each physician's background for evidence of all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
criminal activity.
B.
malpractice history.
C.
salary history.
D.
disciplinary actions.
Question #11
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, a patient's medical record and payment history are considered:
A.
electronically transmitted data.
B.
managed care plan information.
C.
protected health information.
D.
secure medical data.
Question #12
A person who has a privacy complaint can file it with the:
A.
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
B.
American Medical Association (AMA).
C.
Office for Civil Rights (OCR).
Question #13
The process of scrambling and encoding electronic data to prevent it from being read by unauthorized users is known as:
A.
transcription.
B.
encryption.
C.
coding.
D.
translation.
Question #14
ICD-10-CM codes submitted on insurance claim forms are used to:
A.
report patient demographic information.
B.
record a patient's office visits or inpatient days.
C.
report specific procedures and services.
D.
determine medical necessity for covered procedures and services.
Question #15
The ICD-10-PCS is used to report:
A.
outpatient procedure coding.
B.
proper diagnosis coding.
C.
proper mortality coding.
D.
inpatient procedure coding.
Question #16
To locate the correct code for the first encounter, the medical specialist must first look for the term in the:
A.
Alphabetic Index.
B.
External Causes Index.
C.
Neoplasm Table.
D.
Tabular List of Diseases and Injuries.
Question #17
Subterms in an ICD-10-CM entry may show:
A.
a better description of the disease.
B.
another name for the disease.
C.
treatments of the disease.
D.
the cause or origin of the disease.
Question #18
The code next to the main term is called the:
A.
default code.
B.
primary code.
C.
combination code.
D.
specified code.
Question #19
Each medical practice must appoint a person to serve as its Privacy Compliance Officer, who must be familiar with federal and state privacy regulations in order to:
A.
represent the practice in any lawsuits that arise over privacy issues.
B.
file monthly reports with the office of the state insurance commissioner.
C.
respond to insurance carriers' questions and handle patient billing complaints.
D.
respond to requests for medical records and handle privacy-related complaints.
Question #20
Providers are legally obligated to disclose protected health information (PHI) to public health authorities when a:
A.
person may have been exposed to certain communicable diseases.
B.
particularly severe flu epidemic has occurred.
C.
patient has returned from a trip to a country with poor sanitation.
D.
patient or staff member has a prison record.
Question #21
In what year did CMS require state Medicaid agencies to use CPT codes for reporting outpatient hospital procedures as part of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act?
A.
2006
B.
1986
C.
1977
D.
1992
Question #22
The temporary codes used for emerging technology, services, or procedures are:
A.
Category I CPT codes.
B.
Category II CPT codes.
C.
Category III CPT codes.
D.
ICD-10-CM codes.
Question #23
The most-often reported evaluation and management (E/M) services are:
A.
emergency room services.
B.
hospital (inpatient) services.
C.
consultations.
D.
office and other outpatient services.
Question #24
A new patient is considered one who has NOT received professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty in the same group within the past:
A.
5 years.
B.
2 years.
C.
3 years.
D.
1 year.
Question #25
Details about a patient's current employment or school history would be part of a:
A.
family history.
B.
past history.
C.
social history.
D.
history of present illness.
Question #26
Details about the health status or cause of death of parents, siblings, and children would be part of a:
A.
social history.
B.
history of present illness.
C.
family history.
D.
past history.
Question #27
Managed care is a system in which physicians contract to participate in a health insurance network and healthcare delivery is:
A.
at the discretion of the physician.
B.
provided only by in-network physicians.
C.
monitored to control costs.
D.
based on the patient's ability to pay.
Question #28
A practice with 10 or more physicians would generally be categorized as a:
A.
small-group practice.
B.
solo practice.
C.
large-group practice.
D.
private practice.
Question #29
The healthcare professional who researches data in medical records in order to accurately document diagnoses and procedures and obtain maximum reimbursement for physicians is the:
A.
payment poster.
B.
medical office assistant.
C.
medical collector.
D.
medical coder.
Question #30
The healthcare professional who is responsible for answering questions and explaining topics such as HIPAA privacy regulations, living wills, and do-not-resuscitate orders (DNRs) to patients and their family members is the:
A.
insurance verification representative.
B.
privacy compliance officer.
C.
admitting clerk.
D.
medical collector.
Question #31
The duties and responsibilities of a medical biller may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
submitting insurance claims.
B.
contacting insurance carriers on incorrectly paid claims.
C.
analyzing patient charge information.
D.
explaining HIPAA regulations.
Question #32
The duties and responsibilities of a privacy compliance officer may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
posting payments or making adjustments to patient accounts.
B.
data entry of patient demographics.
C.
answering questions about privacy regulations.
D.
explaining DNR orders to patients and their family members.
Question #33
The Certified Professional Coder (CPC) certification is awarded through the:
A.
American Academy of Professional Coders.
B.
National Healthcareer Association.
C.
National Center for Competency Testing.
D.
American Health Information Management Association.
Question #34
A large-group practice will frequently contract out its billing and accounts receivable.
A.
True
B.
False
Question #35
HCPCS Level II codes in the range C1300—C9899 would be used for:
A.
temporary hospital outpatient.
B.
diagnostic radiology services.
C.
private payer codes.
D.
orthotic procedures.
Question #36
The code for durable medical equipment (DME) would be found in the:
A.
Level II HCPCS code book.
B.
Level I HCPCS code book.
C.
Level III HCPCS code book.
D.
This is not considered a HCPCS code.
Question #37
A.
public insurers only.
B.
self-funded plans only.
C.
private insurers only.
D.
public and private insurers.
Question #38
When each reported service is connected to a diagnosis that supports the procedure as medically necessary, the claim is referred to as:
A.
accurate.
B.
clean.
C.
complete.
D.
authorized.
Question #39
Billing the parts of a bundled procedure as separate procedures is referred to as:
A.
bundling.
B.
upcoding.
C.
downcoding.
D.
unbundling.
Question #40
The best way to be sure that an intended action will NOT be subject to investigation as fraud is to:
A.
get the advice of an attorney.
B.
obtain an advisory opinion from the Office of Inspector General (OIG) and Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
C.
base the decision on past practices.
D.
submit the claim, and request an explanation if denied.
Question #41
A postpayment audit would verify:
A.
sign-in sheets and appointment scheduling practices.
B.
patient insurance identification number.
C.
date of service.
D.
patient insurance eligibility.
Question #42
An internal audit would determine:
A.
the coder's skill and knowledge.
B.
whether procedures were coded correctly.
C.
All of these.
D.
if additional training is needed for office staff.
Question #43
An independent audit should be performed a minimum of:
A.
once a month.
B.
twice a year.
C.
once a year.
D.
once a quarter.
Question #44
If a physician documents that an exam included the measurement of a patient's blood pressure, the system examined would be the:
A.
cardiovascular system.
B.
musculoskeletal system.
C.
neurological system.
D.
respiratory system.
Question #45
If a physician who ordered a test personally reviews the results to supplement information from the physician who prepared the test report, the work would add to the level of the:
A.
All of these.
B.
risk of significant complications, morbidity, and/or mortality.
C.
number of diagnoses or management options.
D.
amount and/or complexity of data to be reviewed.
Question #46
A.
audit.
B.
review.
C.
reconsideration.
D.
appeal.
Question #47
If a claim is denied because services were provided before insurance coverage was in effect, the medical office specialist should:
A.
bill the patient.
B.
change the date of service and resubmit the claim.
C.
write off the entire amount.
D.
wait until the effective date of the coverage, then bill the insurance carrier.
Question #48
Reasons for follow-up include:
A.
an incorrect payment is received.
B.
All of these.
C.
unclear denial of payment is received.
D.
reimbursement is received for an unknown patient.
Question #49
If a physician requests a peer review that results in confirmation that services were NOT medically necessary:
A.
the physician must pay for the review.
B.
the insurance carrier will pay for the review.
C.
the patient should be billed for the review.
D.
there is no charge for the review.
Question #50
Which of the following are reason codes that require a formal appeal?
A.
not related to diagnoses
B.
claim processing error
C.
noncovered emergency services
D.
both noncovered emergency services and not related to diagnoses
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