MOA 183 - Intro to Health Insurance » Fall 2022 » Midterm Exam Chapter 2 to 9 & 16
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Question #1
Managed care systems ensure the delivery of high-quality care while managing costs through:
A.
provider networks and regular premium increases.
B.
discounted fees for services and mandatory high deductibles across all health plans.
C.
prohibiting the use of out-of-network providers.
D.
provider networks and discounted fees for services.
Question #2
To determine the amount due from a patient, it is necessary to know the:
A.
allowed amount.
B.
adjusted amount.
C.
diagnostic code.
D.
billed amount.
Question #3
In a managed care organization (MCO), a primary care physician (PCP) is any of the following EXCEPT:
A.
family practitioner.
B.
dermatologist.
C.
internal medicine doctor.
D.
general practitioner.
Question #4
By accepting lower payments from MCOs, physicians are forced to see more patients each day in order to:
A.
enroll more members in the health plan.
B.
maintain their income.
C.
minimize malpractice suits.
D.
deliver MCO-required preventive care.
Question #5
All of the following are types of health maintenance organizations (HMOs) EXCEPT the:
A.
individual practice association.
B.
group model.
C.
preferred provider model.
D.
open access model.
Question #6
A managed care contract should clearly state all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
the time limit for submitting claims to the MCO.
B.
the list of employers with MCO contracts.
C.
how much the physician will be paid for services.
D.
when payment should be received from the MCO.
Question #7
A medical office specialist must do all the following EXCEPT:
A.
know the Patient Bill of Rights.
B.
be familiar with managed care terms.
C.
promote the provider network.
D.
explain the ACO to the patient.
Question #8
The schedule of benefits section of a managed care contract lists the:
A.
medical services covered under the managed care plan.
B.
deductible and coinsurance amounts that patients must pay.
C.
benefits of participating in the managed care plan.
D.
providers in the contracted network.
Question #9
In plans that require the primary care physician (PCP) to play a gatekeeper role, the PCP is given incentives to:
A.
treat the patient as much as possible without a specialist referral unless absolutely necessary.
B.
see as many patients each day as possible, even if this means less time with each patient.
C.
make frequent referrals to contracted network specialists.
D.
expand office hours and/or staff to permit more patients to be seen each day.
Question #10
The credentialing process of a managed care organization (MCO) will examine each physician's background for evidence of all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
salary history.
B.
malpractice history.
C.
disciplinary actions.
D.
criminal activity.
Question #11
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, a patient's medical record and payment history are considered:
A.
secure medical data.
B.
electronically transmitted data.
C.
managed care plan information.
D.
protected health information.
Question #12
A person who has a privacy complaint can file it with the:
A.
American Medical Association (AMA).
B.
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
C.
Office for Civil Rights (OCR).
Question #13
The process of scrambling and encoding electronic data to prevent it from being read by unauthorized users is known as:
A.
translation.
B.
encryption.
C.
transcription.
D.
coding.
Question #14
ICD-10-CM codes submitted on insurance claim forms are used to:
A.
report specific procedures and services.
B.
determine medical necessity for covered procedures and services.
C.
record a patient's office visits or inpatient days.
D.
report patient demographic information.
Question #15
The ICD-10-PCS is used to report:
A.
inpatient procedure coding.
B.
outpatient procedure coding.
C.
proper mortality coding.
D.
proper diagnosis coding.
Question #16
To locate the correct code for the first encounter, the medical specialist must first look for the term in the:
A.
Neoplasm Table.
B.
Tabular List of Diseases and Injuries.
C.
Alphabetic Index.
D.
External Causes Index.
Question #17
Subterms in an ICD-10-CM entry may show:
A.
another name for the disease.
B.
the cause or origin of the disease.
C.
a better description of the disease.
D.
treatments of the disease.
Question #18
The code next to the main term is called the:
A.
default code.
B.
combination code.
C.
specified code.
D.
primary code.
Question #19
Each medical practice must appoint a person to serve as its Privacy Compliance Officer, who must be familiar with federal and state privacy regulations in order to:
A.
file monthly reports with the office of the state insurance commissioner.
B.
represent the practice in any lawsuits that arise over privacy issues.
C.
respond to insurance carriers' questions and handle patient billing complaints.
D.
respond to requests for medical records and handle privacy-related complaints.
Question #20
Providers are legally obligated to disclose protected health information (PHI) to public health authorities when a:
A.
particularly severe flu epidemic has occurred.
B.
person may have been exposed to certain communicable diseases.
C.
patient has returned from a trip to a country with poor sanitation.
D.
patient or staff member has a prison record.
Question #21
In what year did CMS require state Medicaid agencies to use CPT codes for reporting outpatient hospital procedures as part of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act?
A.
1986
B.
2006
C.
1992
D.
1977
Question #22
The temporary codes used for emerging technology, services, or procedures are:
A.
Category II CPT codes.
B.
Category I CPT codes.
C.
ICD-10-CM codes.
D.
Category III CPT codes.
Question #23
The most-often reported evaluation and management (E/M) services are:
A.
emergency room services.
B.
office and other outpatient services.
C.
consultations.
D.
hospital (inpatient) services.
Question #24
A new patient is considered one who has NOT received professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty in the same group within the past:
A.
5 years.
B.
2 years.
C.
1 year.
D.
3 years.
Question #25
Details about a patient's current employment or school history would be part of a:
A.
social history.
B.
history of present illness.
C.
past history.
D.
family history.
Question #26
Details about the health status or cause of death of parents, siblings, and children would be part of a:
A.
social history.
B.
past history.
C.
family history.
D.
history of present illness.
Question #27
Managed care is a system in which physicians contract to participate in a health insurance network and healthcare delivery is:
A.
based on the patient's ability to pay.
B.
at the discretion of the physician.
C.
provided only by in-network physicians.
D.
monitored to control costs.
Question #28
A practice with 10 or more physicians would generally be categorized as a:
A.
large-group practice.
B.
small-group practice.
C.
solo practice.
D.
private practice.
Question #29
The healthcare professional who researches data in medical records in order to accurately document diagnoses and procedures and obtain maximum reimbursement for physicians is the:
A.
medical office assistant.
B.
medical coder.
C.
medical collector.
D.
payment poster.
Question #30
The healthcare professional who is responsible for answering questions and explaining topics such as HIPAA privacy regulations, living wills, and do-not-resuscitate orders (DNRs) to patients and their family members is the:
A.
insurance verification representative.
B.
admitting clerk.
C.
medical collector.
D.
privacy compliance officer.
Question #31
The duties and responsibilities of a medical biller may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
explaining HIPAA regulations.
B.
submitting insurance claims.
C.
contacting insurance carriers on incorrectly paid claims.
D.
analyzing patient charge information.
Question #32
The duties and responsibilities of a privacy compliance officer may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
data entry of patient demographics.
B.
explaining DNR orders to patients and their family members.
C.
answering questions about privacy regulations.
D.
posting payments or making adjustments to patient accounts.
Question #33
The Certified Professional Coder (CPC) certification is awarded through the:
A.
American Health Information Management Association.
B.
National Healthcareer Association.
C.
National Center for Competency Testing.
D.
American Academy of Professional Coders.
Question #34
A large-group practice will frequently contract out its billing and accounts receivable.
A.
False
B.
True
Question #35
HCPCS Level II codes in the range C1300—C9899 would be used for:
A.
private payer codes.
B.
diagnostic radiology services.
C.
temporary hospital outpatient.
D.
orthotic procedures.
Question #36
The code for durable medical equipment (DME) would be found in the:
A.
Level II HCPCS code book.
B.
This is not considered a HCPCS code.
C.
Level I HCPCS code book.
D.
Level III HCPCS code book.
Question #37
A.
private insurers only.
B.
self-funded plans only.
C.
public insurers only.
D.
public and private insurers.
Question #38
When each reported service is connected to a diagnosis that supports the procedure as medically necessary, the claim is referred to as:
A.
clean.
B.
complete.
C.
authorized.
D.
accurate.
Question #39
Billing the parts of a bundled procedure as separate procedures is referred to as:
A.
bundling.
B.
downcoding.
C.
upcoding.
D.
unbundling.
Question #40
The best way to be sure that an intended action will NOT be subject to investigation as fraud is to:
A.
get the advice of an attorney.
B.
obtain an advisory opinion from the Office of Inspector General (OIG) and Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
C.
base the decision on past practices.
D.
submit the claim, and request an explanation if denied.
Question #41
A postpayment audit would verify:
A.
sign-in sheets and appointment scheduling practices.
B.
date of service.
C.
patient insurance identification number.
D.
patient insurance eligibility.
Question #42
An internal audit would determine:
A.
if additional training is needed for office staff.
B.
whether procedures were coded correctly.
C.
the coder's skill and knowledge.
D.
All of these.
Question #43
An independent audit should be performed a minimum of:
A.
twice a year.
B.
once a quarter.
C.
once a year.
D.
once a month.
Question #44
If a physician documents that an exam included the measurement of a patient's blood pressure, the system examined would be the:
A.
musculoskeletal system.
B.
cardiovascular system.
C.
respiratory system.
D.
neurological system.
Question #45
If a physician who ordered a test personally reviews the results to supplement information from the physician who prepared the test report, the work would add to the level of the:
A.
amount and/or complexity of data to be reviewed.
B.
All of these.
C.
number of diagnoses or management options.
D.
risk of significant complications, morbidity, and/or mortality.
Question #46
A.
reconsideration.
B.
audit.
C.
review.
D.
appeal.
Question #47
If a claim is denied because services were provided before insurance coverage was in effect, the medical office specialist should:
A.
write off the entire amount.
B.
change the date of service and resubmit the claim.
C.
bill the patient.
D.
wait until the effective date of the coverage, then bill the insurance carrier.
Question #48
Reasons for follow-up include:
A.
reimbursement is received for an unknown patient.
B.
an incorrect payment is received.
C.
unclear denial of payment is received.
D.
All of these.
Question #49
If a physician requests a peer review that results in confirmation that services were NOT medically necessary:
A.
the insurance carrier will pay for the review.
B.
the physician must pay for the review.
C.
the patient should be billed for the review.
D.
there is no charge for the review.
Question #50
Which of the following are reason codes that require a formal appeal?
A.
not related to diagnoses
B.
noncovered emergency services
C.
claim processing error
D.
both noncovered emergency services and not related to diagnoses
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