MOA 183 - Intro to Health Insurance » Fall 2022 » Weekly Quiz 6 Chapter 7 & 8
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Question #1
Examples of procedures or services include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
evaluation and management.
B.
arthroscopy.
C.
abdominal distention.
D.
osteopathic manipulation.
Question #2
If two codes apply to an entry in the CPT index, the codes are separated by a:
A.
colon.
B.
semicolon.
C.
hyphen.
D.
comma.
Question #3
Within an indented series of codes, the first left-justified code is the:
A.
main term.
B.
parent code.
C.
official code.
D.
subterm.
Question #4
The modifier used to report a bilateral procedure is:
A.
-50
B.
-22
C.
-53
D.
-47
Question #5
Modifier -47 is used to report:
A.
anesthesia administered by a surgeon.
B.
multiple procedures that involve anesthesia.
C.
procedure performed by a surgical assistant.
D.
use of local anesthesia.
Question #6
A special report detailing increased time and difficulty should be submitted with a claim when which modifier is used?
A.
-25
B.
-22
C.
-63
D.
-79
Question #7
When a physician performs a surgical procedure but does NOT provide the preoperative and/or postoperative management, the coder should use modifier:
A.
-54
B.
-56
C.
-55
D.
-58
Question #8
Which of the following can be billed separately in a surgical procedure?
A.
None of these
B.
positioning the patient
C.
fulguration of bleeding points
D.
exploration of operative area
Question #9
Anesthesia is reimbursed according to the:
A.
type of surgery or procedure being performed.
B.
time under anesthesia.
C.
experience of the anesthesiologist.
D.
type of drug administered.
Question #10
A bundled code refers to a:
A.
code used with modifier -99.
B.
group of unrelated procedures done on the same day.
C.
group of procedures pertaining to the same diagnosis.
D.
group of related procedures covered by a single code.
Question #11
The subsections under Anesthesia in the CPT code book are organized by:
A.
time under anesthesia.
B.
type of drug administered.
C.
type of surgery or procedure.
D.
body site.
Question #12
The physical status modifier that should be used for a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is:
A.
P4.
B.
P1.
C.
P3.
D.
P6.
Question #13
The physical status modifier P1 refers to a:
A.
patient with mild systemic disease.
B.
patient who is not expected to survive without the surgery.
C.
normal, healthy patient.
D.
patient with severe systemic disease.
Question #14
The largest section of the CPT code book is:
A.
Medicine.
B.
Surgery.
C.
Evaluation and Management.
D.
Pathology and Laboratory.
Question #15
Which type of procedure is reported as an additional procedure performed in addition to a main procedure?
A.
essential procedure
B.
primary procedure
C.
elective procedure
D.
secondary procedure
Question #16
A surgical package would include:
A.
one evaluation and management (E/M) encounter on the date immediately prior to the date of the procedure.
B.
all general anesthesia services.
C.
all E/M encounters prior to the date of the procedure.
D.
all care provided within 30 days of surgery.
Question #17
A service NOT included in the surgical package code would be:
A.
surgical complications or the presence of other diseases requiring additional services.
B.
C.
one related evaluation and management (E/M) encounter on the date immediately prior to the date of the procedure.
D.
immediate postoperative care, including talking with the patient's family.
E.
evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery room.
Question #18
The global surgical period is determined by the:
A.
surgeon.
B.
patient's primary care physician.
C.
patient.
D.
insurance carrier or other third-party payer.
Question #19
In coding radiology services, the part of the procedure that reflects the technologist and the equipment used is the:
A.
professional component.
B.
supply and equipment component.
C.
results component.
D.
technical component.
Question #20
The use of the term supervision and interpretation (S&I) means that the radiology code represents only the:
A.
technical component.
B.
results component.
C.
professional component.
D.
supply and equipment component.
Question #21
If a physician's office collects a blood sample and sends it to an outside lab, the physician:
A.
can bill for analyzing the test results only in certain cases.
B.
can bill for obtaining the sample.
C.
cannot bill for obtaining the sample.
D.
can never bill for any type of lab work.
Question #22
To code for immunizations, the coder should use:
A.
one code for the administration and one code for the vaccine.
B.
one code for the vaccine given.
C.
one bundled code for the administration and the vaccine given.
D.
one code for the administration only.
Question #23
A range of codes is shown when more than one code applies to an entry.
A.
True
B.
False
Question #24
When add-on codes are used, the coder should also use modifier -51 to identify more than one code.
A.
False
B.
True
Question #25
The five-digit CPT codes used to report services and procedures performed by healthcare providers are also known as:
A.
They are not considered HCPCS codes.
B.
Level I HCPCS.
C.
Level II HCPCS.
D.
Level III HCPCS.
Question #26
What is an individual called who files a lawsuit on behalf of the federal government?
A.
relator
B.
source
C.
informant
D.
plaintiff
Question #27
HCPCS Level II codes are updated annually by the:
A.
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
B.
American Medical Association (AMA).
C.
World Health Organization (WHO).
D.
American Dental Association (ADA).
Question #28
A coder who needs to find the code for prosthetic procedures would find it in the:
A.
Level I HCPCS code book.
B.
This is not considered an HCPCS code.
C.
Level III HCPCS code book.
D.
Level II HCPCS code book.
Question #29
An example of an HCPCS Level II code is:
A.
250.00.
B.
E849.0.
C.
99213
D.
J0290.
Question #30
HCPCS Level II codes in the range J0120-J9999 would be used for:
A.
drugs administered other than oral method.
B.
dental procedures.
C.
durable medical equipment (DME).
D.
diagnostic radiology services.
Question #31
The National Panel that maintains Level II HCPCS codes includes representatives from:
A.
Health Insurance Association of America (HIAA).
B.
Blue Cross/Blue Shield Association.
C.
All of these.
D.
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
Question #32
State Medicaid agency codes are reported with what HCPCS code range?
A.
G0008—G9156
B.
V2020—V2799
C.
T1000—T5999
D.
C1300—C9899
Question #33
To identify that a procedure was performed on the thumb of the left hand, the coder would select the modifier:
A.
LA.
B.
F1.
C.
FA.
D.
L1.
Question #34
The HCPCS modifier GA indicates:
A.
a waiver of liability statement is on file.
B.
the procedure billed may be denied by Medicare as "not medically necessary."
C.
All of these.
D.
an advance beneficiary notice has been signed by the patient.
Question #35
Inaccurate coding and incorrect billing can result in:
A.
All of these.
B.
loss of the provider's license to practice medicine.
C.
delays in receiving payments.
D.
prison sentences.
Question #36
Code linkage refers to the connection between the:
A.
HCPCS Level I and Level II codes.
B.
procedure and modifier.
C.
diagnosis and symptom.
D.
diagnosis and procedure.
Question #37
A.
age.
B.
gender.
C.
All of these.
D.
health condition.
Question #38
In physical therapy cases, if a coder bills for supervised attendance:
A.
the therapist must be in constant attendance with the patient.
B.
one-on-one direct contact by the therapist is not required.
C.
the therapist must be supervised by a physician.
D.
one-on-one direct contact by the therapist is required.
Question #39
The Stark Law was enacted to govern the practice of:
A.
medical office coding practices.
B.
physician referrals of Medicare and Medicaid patients to facilities in which he or she has a financial interest.
C.
physician referrals to other providers such as physical and occupational therapists.
D.
utilization of controlled substances in medical facilities.
Question #40
Under civil law, the maximum penalty for medical fraud is:
A.
loss of professional license.
B.
exclusion from the American Medical Association.
C.
10 years in jail.
D.
$10,000.00
Question #41
To bill for a procedure that was NOT performed is considered:
A.
abuse.
B.
fraud.
C.
unbundling.
D.
upcoding.
Question #42
Misusing Medicare funds is considered:
A.
fraud but not illegal.
B.
abuse and illegal.
C.
fraud and illegal.
D.
abuse but not illegal.
Question #43
To bill for a procedure that was NOT medically necessary is considered:
A.
inaccurate.
B.
abuse.
C.
incomplete.
D.
fraud.
Question #44
Healthcare payers base their decision to pay or deny claims on the:
A.
procedure codes only.
B.
diagnosis and procedure codes.
C.
diagnosis codes only.
D.
neatness of the claim.
Question #45
All the following are true of Column I edits EXCEPT:
A.
cannot be billed together with the Column I code for the same patient on the same day.
B.
includes all the services that are described by Column II code.
C.
contains the comprehensive code.
D.
formerly known as the component column.
Question #46
Benefits of a voluntary compliance plan include:
A.
All of these.
B.
reducing the chances that an audit will be conducted by the CMS or OIG.
C.
avoiding conflicts with the self-referral and anti-kickback statutes.
D.
minimizing billing mistakes.
Question #47
If a provider requests an advisory opinion and fails to follow the advice of the Office of Inspector General (OIG), the provider:
A.
should not change its practices.
B.
could be prosecuted.
C.
could claim "not knowing."
D.
would be treated leniently for asking the question.
Question #48
HCPCS is the acronym for Healthcare Coding Procedures in a Common System.
A.
False
B.
True
Question #49
HCPCS is organized by code number rather than by service or supply name.
A.
False
B.
True
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