MOA 180 - Health Information Management & HIPAA » Fall 2022 » Week 7 Practice Quiz Chapters 6 & 7
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Question #1
A patient's vital signs are taken as ordered by the physician during the stay. What is one advantage of tracking vitals in EHRs?
A.
Increasing body temperature is seen.
B.
Vitals can be graphed.
C.
Infection is easily seen by rising temperature.
D.
Vitals can be graphed and an infection is easily noted.
Question #2
The person who is ultimately responsible for the care of the patient while hospitalized is known as the:
A.
hospitalist.
B.
attending physician.
C.
chief resident.
D.
surgeon.
Question #3
A hospitalist is employed by the hospital and is typically which?
A.
Board-certified physician assistant
B.
Board-certified internist
C.
Board-certified cardiologist
D.
Board-certified nurse practitioner
Question #4
Mary Smith is admitted to the hospital by her primary care physician; he documents the following in the history and physical: patient complaining of abdominal pain for the last 48 hours with nausea and vomiting. What part of the history and physical is this called?
A.
Physical examination
B.
Admission order
C.
History of Present Illness (HPI)
D.
Past medical history
Question #5
How is the inpatient census tracked?
A.
Manually counting the patients
B.
ADT system
C.
Subtracting the discharges from the inpatients
D.
Adding total number of patients admitted that day
Question #6
What is the definition of patient census?
A.
The number of inpatients occupying beds at any given time
B.
The number of patients in observation and inpatients at midnight
C.
The number of patients in observation and inpatients at any given time
D.
The number of inpatients occupying beds at midnight
Question #7
ADT plays an important role in Meaningful Use in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
A.
commonly exchanged information supports transition in care.
B.
clinical information is timely.
C.
files are large and can be transmitted easily.
D.
automated reports are standardized.
Question #8
One of the ways to document in the EHR is by using:
A.
a template.
B.
a prototype.
C.
an outline.
D.
dictation.
Question #9
Who generally documents the information in the MAR?
A.
Nurse
B.
Hospitalist
C.
Physician
D.
Intern
Question #10
The chief resident has seen Mrs. Smith and written progress notes in her chart; who must sign off on these notes that were written?
A.
Nurse practitioner of record
B.
Physician of record
C.
Resident of record
D.
Hospitalist of record
Question #11
Which of the following may be included in the designated record set?
A.
History and physical reports
B.
All of these
C.
Any group of records maintained by a covered entity
D.
Medical and billing records
Question #12
Any records maintained by a covered entity that are used for patient care or to make payment decisions as defined by HIPAA are known as:
A.
case management records.
B.
designated record set.
C.
health records.
D.
medical records.
Question #13
Health records in the case of Mary Jones, whose primary care physician is Dr. Smith and insurance plan is Medicare, may be released to which party under the HIPAA designated record set regulation?
A.
Her husband
B.
Dr. Smith
C.
Medical Mutual insurance plan
D.
Publisher's clearinghouse
Question #14
The legal health record is the same as the:
A.
official business record.
B.
designated record set.
C.
health record.
D.
medical record.
Question #15
The legal health record should:
A.
document alternative treatment facilities available to the patient.
B.
support unbundled charge revenue.
C.
serve as the designated record set.
D.
document services provided in response to caregiver decisions.
Question #16
A health insurance company that reimburses for medical care in all or in part is known as a:
A.
health clearinghouse.
B.
health plan.
C.
claim adjudication.
D.
designated provider.
Question #17
A service that processes data into a standardized billing format and checks for errors prior to submitting a claim is a:
A.
health plan.
B.
health adjudicator.
C.
health clearinghouse.
D.
none of these.
Question #18
A review of documentation to ensure that it is complete, thorough, and accurate is:
A.
quantitative analysis.
B.
substantiation analysis.
C.
precertification.
D.
qualitative analysis.
Question #19
Which of the following is NOT an example of a qualitative health information review process?
A.
Tracking duplicate patient entries in the MPI
B.
Reviewing laterality of documentation in orthopedic cases
C.
Identifying patterns of upcoding for pneumonia patients
D.
Checking for the presence of progress notes
Question #20
Quality assessment programs are:
A.
external and internal in scope.
B.
required by TJC.
C.
required by the CMS.
D.
all of these.
Question #21
The review and management of the appropriateness of admissions and facility services is referred to as:
A.
utilization management.
B.
precertification review.
C.
peer review.
D.
professional standards review organization.
Question #22
Mary Smith is online reviewing the level of facility cleanliness among the three community-based hospitals in her city of residence before her admission for an elective cholecystectomy. She is most likely:
A.
reviewing the scope of work for the facilities.
B.
chatting with a quality improvement organization.
C.
completing a peer review.
D.
browsing Hospital Compare data.
Question #23
Comparing the ratio of Medicare spending per patient is a function of the:
A.
peer review and Hospital Compare.
B.
none of these.
C.
Hospital Compare and the Meaningful Use programs.
D.
current scope of work.
Question #24
Collecting data on common focused areas of review in all facilities upon patient discharge to measure core elements of quality may include:
A.
all of these.
B.
recording the history of myocardial infarctions in patients with heart failure.
C.
indicating the number of years of tobacco use in cancer patients.
D.
abstracting the date of pneumococcal vaccine in patients with pneumonia.
Question #25
A Joint Commission initiative used to measure the quality and safety of healthcare is:
A.
CARF.
B.
core measurement system.
C.
scope of work.
D.
accountability measures.
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