MOA 180 - Health Information Management & HIPAA » Fall 2022 » Week 7 Practice Quiz Chapters 6 & 7
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Question #1
A patient's vital signs are taken as ordered by the physician during the stay. What is one advantage of tracking vitals in EHRs?
A.
Vitals can be graphed and an infection is easily noted.
B.
Infection is easily seen by rising temperature.
C.
Vitals can be graphed.
D.
Increasing body temperature is seen.
Question #2
The person who is ultimately responsible for the care of the patient while hospitalized is known as the:
A.
chief resident.
B.
surgeon.
C.
hospitalist.
D.
attending physician.
Question #3
A hospitalist is employed by the hospital and is typically which?
A.
Board-certified cardiologist
B.
Board-certified physician assistant
C.
Board-certified nurse practitioner
D.
Board-certified internist
Question #4
Mary Smith is admitted to the hospital by her primary care physician; he documents the following in the history and physical: patient complaining of abdominal pain for the last 48 hours with nausea and vomiting. What part of the history and physical is this called?
A.
Physical examination
B.
Past medical history
C.
Admission order
D.
History of Present Illness (HPI)
Question #5
How is the inpatient census tracked?
A.
Subtracting the discharges from the inpatients
B.
Manually counting the patients
C.
ADT system
D.
Adding total number of patients admitted that day
Question #6
What is the definition of patient census?
A.
The number of inpatients occupying beds at midnight
B.
The number of patients in observation and inpatients at midnight
C.
The number of inpatients occupying beds at any given time
D.
The number of patients in observation and inpatients at any given time
Question #7
ADT plays an important role in Meaningful Use in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
A.
commonly exchanged information supports transition in care.
B.
files are large and can be transmitted easily.
C.
automated reports are standardized.
D.
clinical information is timely.
Question #8
One of the ways to document in the EHR is by using:
A.
an outline.
B.
a template.
C.
dictation.
D.
a prototype.
Question #9
Who generally documents the information in the MAR?
A.
Intern
B.
Physician
C.
Nurse
D.
Hospitalist
Question #10
The chief resident has seen Mrs. Smith and written progress notes in her chart; who must sign off on these notes that were written?
A.
Physician of record
B.
Hospitalist of record
C.
Resident of record
D.
Nurse practitioner of record
Question #11
Which of the following may be included in the designated record set?
A.
Medical and billing records
B.
All of these
C.
History and physical reports
D.
Any group of records maintained by a covered entity
Question #12
Any records maintained by a covered entity that are used for patient care or to make payment decisions as defined by HIPAA are known as:
A.
health records.
B.
medical records.
C.
case management records.
D.
designated record set.
Question #13
Health records in the case of Mary Jones, whose primary care physician is Dr. Smith and insurance plan is Medicare, may be released to which party under the HIPAA designated record set regulation?
A.
Publisher's clearinghouse
B.
Medical Mutual insurance plan
C.
Her husband
D.
Dr. Smith
Question #14
The legal health record is the same as the:
A.
medical record.
B.
official business record.
C.
health record.
D.
designated record set.
Question #15
The legal health record should:
A.
document services provided in response to caregiver decisions.
B.
serve as the designated record set.
C.
support unbundled charge revenue.
D.
document alternative treatment facilities available to the patient.
Question #16
A health insurance company that reimburses for medical care in all or in part is known as a:
A.
health clearinghouse.
B.
designated provider.
C.
health plan.
D.
claim adjudication.
Question #17
A service that processes data into a standardized billing format and checks for errors prior to submitting a claim is a:
A.
none of these.
B.
health clearinghouse.
C.
health adjudicator.
D.
health plan.
Question #18
A review of documentation to ensure that it is complete, thorough, and accurate is:
A.
substantiation analysis.
B.
precertification.
C.
qualitative analysis.
D.
quantitative analysis.
Question #19
Which of the following is NOT an example of a qualitative health information review process?
A.
Checking for the presence of progress notes
B.
Identifying patterns of upcoding for pneumonia patients
C.
Reviewing laterality of documentation in orthopedic cases
D.
Tracking duplicate patient entries in the MPI
Question #20
Quality assessment programs are:
A.
required by the CMS.
B.
external and internal in scope.
C.
all of these.
D.
required by TJC.
Question #21
The review and management of the appropriateness of admissions and facility services is referred to as:
A.
peer review.
B.
utilization management.
C.
precertification review.
D.
professional standards review organization.
Question #22
Mary Smith is online reviewing the level of facility cleanliness among the three community-based hospitals in her city of residence before her admission for an elective cholecystectomy. She is most likely:
A.
completing a peer review.
B.
chatting with a quality improvement organization.
C.
reviewing the scope of work for the facilities.
D.
browsing Hospital Compare data.
Question #23
Comparing the ratio of Medicare spending per patient is a function of the:
A.
Hospital Compare and the Meaningful Use programs.
B.
none of these.
C.
current scope of work.
D.
peer review and Hospital Compare.
Question #24
Collecting data on common focused areas of review in all facilities upon patient discharge to measure core elements of quality may include:
A.
recording the history of myocardial infarctions in patients with heart failure.
B.
abstracting the date of pneumococcal vaccine in patients with pneumonia.
C.
all of these.
D.
indicating the number of years of tobacco use in cancer patients.
Question #25
A Joint Commission initiative used to measure the quality and safety of healthcare is:
A.
core measurement system.
B.
scope of work.
C.
CARF.
D.
accountability measures.
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