MOA 193 - Current Procedural Term Coding » Spring 2023 » Exam One Chapter 1-4
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Question #1
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the CPT code set?
A.
To provide a uniform language to accurately reflect medical, surgical, and diagnostic services
B.
To endorse a particular health insurance coverage or reimbursement policy
C.
To promote the use of specific diagnostic or therapeutic procedures
D.
To restrict the use of medical procedures and services
Question #2
Who is responsible for maintaining the CPT code set?
A.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
B.
AMA’s CPT Editorial Panel
C.
Health Insurance Plans
D.
American Hospital Association
Question #3
Which of the following is NOT a primary class of main index entries in the CPT codebook?
A.
Organ or other anatomic site
B.
Condition
C.
Provider specialty
D.
Procedure or service
Question #4
What is the purpose of the parent and child codes relationship in the CPT code set?
A.
To indicate a shared or common description
B.
To save space on the printed page
C.
All of these
D.
To identify different types of procedures
Question #5
What is the HCPCS coding system?
A.
A system for identifying health insurance policies
B.
A system for identifying diseases and medical conditions
C.
A system for identifying prescription drugs
D.
A system for identifying medical procedures and services
Question #6
Which of the following is NOT a use of the CPT code set?
A.
For administrative management purposes, such as claims processing
B.
To report medical procedures and services under government and private health insurance
C.
To promote specific diagnostic or therapeutic procedures
D.
For medical education and research
Question #7
Who can submit requests for changes to the CPT coding?
A.
Only physicians
B.
Only government agencies
C.
Anyone
D.
Only the AMA
Question #8
Which of the following is true regarding the inclusion of a Category I CPT code descriptor in the CPT coding?
A.
It is not necessary to ensure accurate communication among physicians, patients, and third parties
B.
It is generally based on the procedure being consistent with contemporary medical practice and performed by many physicians in clinical practice in multiple locations
C.
It implies a specific health insurance coverage or reimbursement policy
D.
It represents endorsement by the AMA of a particular diagnostic or therapeutic procedure
Question #9
What is the purpose of the Alphabetic Index in the CPT codebook?
A.
To ensure accurate code selection
B.
To provide the main text of the CPT code set
C.
To list all the possible codes for a given procedure or service
D.
To organize main terms by primary classes of index entries
Question #10
How is the child code’s descriptor physically related to the parent code’s descriptor in the CPT codebook?
A.
It is listed before the parent code’s descriptor
B.
It is listed in a separate section of the codebook
C.
It is physically indented beneath the parent code’s descriptor
D.
It is not related to the parent code’s descriptor
Question #11
What is the purpose of the CPT code set?
A.
To limit the number of physicians that can perform a particular medical procedure.
B.
To limit the number of medical procedures and services that can be performed.
C.
To provide a list of medical procedures and services that are not covered by insurance.
D.
To provide a uniform language to accurately reflect medical, surgical, and diagnostic services.
Question #12
Which of the following is NOT a primary class of main index entries in the Alphabetic Index of the CPT codebook?
A.
Physician or specialist name
B.
Procedure or service
C.
Organ or other anatomic site
D.
Condition
Question #13
Which of the following is a use of the CPT code set?
A.
To limit the amount of reimbursement for medical procedures and services.
B.
To develop guidelines for medical review, medical education, and research.
C.
To report medical procedures and services for administrative management purposes only.
D.
To provide a list of medical procedures and services that are not covered by insurance.
Question #14
How is the relationship between parent and child codes indicated in the CPT codebook?
A.
The parent code is always followed by only one child code.
B.
The shared description appears in the child code's descriptor.
C.
The shared content appears after the semicolon in the parent code.
D.
The child code's descriptor is physically indented beneath the parent code's descriptor.
Question #15
Who is responsible for maintaining the CPT code set?
A.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B.
The World Health Organization (WHO).
C.
The National Institutes of Health (NIH).
D.
The American Medical Association's (AMA) CPT Editorial Panel.
Question #16
What is the purpose of the AMA's CPT Editorial Panel?
A.
To limit the number of physicians that can perform a particular medical procedure.
B.
To revise, update, and modify CPT codes.
C.
To limit the number of medical procedures and services that can be performed.
D.
To limit the amount of reimbursement for medical procedures and services.
Question #17
What are E/M codes used to describe?
A.
Procedure codes
B.
Patient demographics
C.
Diagnosis codes
D.
Services provided by physicians and other QHPs
Question #18
How are E/M services categorized in the CPT codebook?
A.
By diagnosis
B.
By patient demographics
C.
By place of service
D.
By broad categories such as office visits, hospital visits, consultations, preventive medicine, and advance care planning
Question #19
What are the seven components of E/M services?
A.
History, examination, medical decision-making complexity, counseling, coordination of care, nature of presenting problem, time
B.
History, examination, medical decision-making complexity, coordination of care, nature of presenting problem, time, patient demographics
C.
Diagnosis, history, examination, medical decision-making complexity, counseling, coordination of care, time
D.
Diagnosis, medical decision-making complexity, counseling, coordination of care, nature of presenting problem, time, place of service
Question #20
What are the three key components required to be met in order to report a particular level of E/M service?
A.
History, examination, medical decision making
B.
Examination, medical decision making, coordination of care
C.
History, medical decision making, coordination of care
D.
History, examination, time
Question #21
How are new and established patients distinguished in E/M services?
A.
By whether they have received a face-to-face professional medical service from the physician/QHP within the past three years
B.
By place of service
C.
By diagnosis
D.
By age
Question #22
A patient presents with multiple diagnoses, requires that a limited amount of data be reviewed, and has a moderate risk of complications or morbidity. What level of medical decision-making would be warranted?
A.
Moderate complexity
B.
Low complexity
C.
Straightforward
D.
High complexity
Question #23
What are the key components of E/M services?
A.
History, consultation, and medical decision making
B.
History, examination, and consultation
C.
History, examination, and medical decision making
D.
Examination, consultation, and medical decision making
Question #24
What percentage of the visit must be related to counseling in order to determine the appropriate code using total time?
A.
More than 75%
B.
More than 25%
C.
More than 50%
D.
More than 90%
Question #25
What is the requirement for all three key components for new patient visits in the office or other outpatient/ambulatory setting?
A.
Must meet or exceed the stated requirements to qualify for a particular level of E/M service
B.
No key components are required
C.
Only one key component is required
D.
Only two of the three key components must meet or exceed the stated requirements to qualify for a particular level of E/M service
Question #26
What is an emergency department (ED)?
A.
A hospital-based facility that provides unscheduled episodic services to patients who present for immediate medical attention
B.
A facility that provides medical care for routine check-ups
C.
A facility that provides medical care for chronic conditions
D.
A facility that provides medical care for elective procedures
Question #27
Which codes are used to report E/M services provided to normal newborns (birth through the first 28 days) in several different settings?
A.
99471-99476
B.
99466-99467
C.
99460-99463
D.
99221-99233
Question #28
How many times can codes 99471 and 99475 be reported per calendar day per patient?
A.
Only once
B.
Four times
C.
Twice
D.
Three times
Question #29
Which of the following is not a subcategory of preventive medicine services?
A.
Hospital inpatient services codes
B.
Periodic comprehensive preventive medicine reevaluation and management services for established patient visits
C.
Preventive medicine counseling for individuals and groups
D.
Initial comprehensive preventive medicine E/M service for new patient visits
Question #30
Which of the following codes is used to report counseling and/or risk-factor reduction and behavior-change interventions provided at a separate encounter from the preventive medicine examination?
A.
99391-99397
B.
99381-99387
C.
99406-99409
D.
99401-99404
Question #31
How are anesthesia procedures divided in the CPT codebook?
A.
Alphabetically
B.
By patient age
C.
By head-to-toe anatomic subsections
D.
By type of anesthesia used
Question #32
Is the intubation of a patient undergoing surgery reported separately from anesthesia services?
A.
No
B.
Yes
Question #33
What is Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC)?
A.
A specific diagnostic or therapeutic procedure
B.
Anesthesia care that includes intraprocedure care and postprocedure anesthesia management.
C.
A type of anesthesia service for patients with severe systemic disease
Question #34
What does MAC include?
A.
Intraprocedure care only
B.
Preprocedure visit only
C.
Preprocedure visit, intraprocedure care, and postprocedure anesthesia management.
Question #35
During MAC, what specific services are provided by the anesthesiologist?
A.
Only administration of sedatives and analgesics
B.
Diagnosis/treatment of clinical problems during procedure, support of vital functions, and provision of other medical services needed to complete procedure
C.
Psychological support and physical comfort only
Question #36
What is the time reporting for anesthesia services?
A.
Begins when physician starts preparing patient for anesthesia in the operating room and ends when the patient is under postoperative supervision.
B.
Begins when patient is under postoperative supervision and ends when the anesthesia services are completed.
C.
Begins when patient is brought to the operating room and ends when the procedure is completed.
Question #37
A.
Using the CPT code for the surgical procedure being performed.
B.
Using any CPT modifier that is appropriate
C.
Using the five-digit anesthesia procedure code and two-digit physical status modifier to distinguish the various levels of complexity of the anesthesia service provided.
Question #38
What are the anesthesia physical status modifiers?
A.
A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6
B.
S1, S2, S3, S4, S5, S6
C.
P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6
Question #39
Can more than one anesthesia modifier be used at a time?
A.
Yes
B.
No
Question #40
When multiple surgical procedures are performed during a single anesthetic administration, which anesthesia code is reported?
A.
The code representing the most complex procedure
B.
All the anesthesia codes representing each individual procedure
C.
The code representing the least complex procedure
Question #41
What is the time reported when multiple surgical procedures are performed during a single anesthetic administration?
A.
Time for each procedure is reported separately
B.
Only the time for the most complex procedure is reported
C.
Combined total time for all procedures is reported
Question #42
What is the range of subsections listed in the CPT codebook?
A.
10021-69990
B.
20001-79999
C.
10001-69999
D.
20021-79990
Question #43
How are the subsections in the Surgery section arranged?
A.
Alphabetically
B.
Numerically
C.
According to anatomic perspective or types of procedures
D.
According to body systems
Question #44
What are the elements included in the CPT surgical package?
A.
Laboratory tests, imaging studies, surgical equipment, preoperative care
B.
All of these
C.
Evaluation and Management (E/M) services, local infiltration, immediate postoperative care, typical postoperative follow-up care
D.
Anesthesia, postoperative medications, medical supplies, follow-up care
Question #45
What is the purpose of modifier 57 in CPT coding?
A.
To indicate that the procedure performed was a diagnostic procedure
B.
To indicate that surgery was scheduled at the time of the E/M visit
C.
To indicate that the surgery was complicated
D.
To indicate that the procedure performed was a therapeutic procedure
Question #46
What is the CPT global period?
A.
The period of time in which a patient is hospitalized after a surgical procedure
B.
The period of time in which a patient is expected to return for follow-up care
C.
The period of time in which follow-up care is provided by the surgeon
D.
The period of time in which a patient is expected to recover after a surgical procedure
Question #47
When can supplies and materials provided by the physician/QHP be separately reported?
A.
When they are used for postoperative care
B.
When they are used for diagnostic procedures
C.
When they are used for surgical procedures
D.
When they are over and above those usually included with the services rendered
Question #48
Is there a universal definition of a global surgical package?
A.
It depends on the insurance contract of each individual patient
B.
No
C.
Yes
D.
It depends on the procedure performed
Question #49
What is a stand-alone CPT code?
A.
A code that describes additional intra-service work associated with the primary procedure
B.
A code that is not commonly carried out in addition to the primary service or procedure
C.
A code that can only be reported when performed in addition to another procedure
Question #50
What is an add-on CPT code?
A.
A code that is commonly carried out in addition to the primary service or procedure
B.
A code that can only be reported when performed in addition to another procedure
C.
A code that describes additional intra-service work associated with the primary procedure
Question #51
What is the multiple procedures modifier in CPT coding?
A.
A modifier that indicates additional intra-service work associated with the primary procedure
B.
A modifier that indicates a procedure is performed in addition to another procedure
C.
A modifier that indicates a procedure is unrelated or distinct from other procedures/services provided
Question #52
When should a procedure designated as a separate procedure be reported?
A.
Only when it is considered an integral component of another procedure/service
B.
When it is performed independently, unrelated, or distinct from other procedure(s)/service(s) provided
C.
When it is performed in addition to another procedure
Question #53
What does the modifier 59 indicate in CPT coding?
A.
That additional intra-service work is associated with the primary procedure
B.
That the procedure is unrelated or distinct from other procedures/services provided
C.
That the procedure is performed in addition to another procedure
Question #54
What is the difference between an open surgical technique and a minimally invasive technique in CPT coding?
A.
Open surgical techniques involve larger incisions than minimally invasive techniques
B.
Minimally invasive techniques involve the use of a scope or other specialized equipment
C.
There is no difference between the two techniques in CPT coding
Question #55
What is the purpose of the CPT Team Game activity?
A.
To teach students how to use the CPT codebook
B.
To help students memorize CPT codes
C.
To encourage teamwork and competition among students
Question #56
What is the largest organ system in the body?
A.
The skin
B.
The lungs
C.
The brain
D.
The heart
Question #57
What is the importance of identifying the type of procedure and anatomy involved when choosing a code from the integumentary system subsection of the CPT codebook?
A.
It helps in billing the insurance company
B.
It helps in maintaining patient records
C.
It is not important
D.
It helps in identifying the correct code to report the procedure
Question #58
How are wound debridement codes reported?
A.
By type of instrument used
B.
By surface area of the wound
C.
By the surgeon who performed the procedure
D.
By the depth of tissue removed and by surface area of the wound
Question #59
What is the definition of "excision"?
A.
Removal of a lesion with layered closure
B.
Partial-thickness removal of a lesion
C.
Removal of a lesion without the margins
D.
Full-thickness removal of a lesion through the dermis, including margins
Question #60
How are repair closure codes classified?
A.
By the type of instrument used
B.
By the size of the wound
C.
By the length of the incision
D.
By the classification of repair method
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