Anthropology 101 - Human Biological Evolution » Spring 2020 » Exam 1

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Question #1
What would a Biological Anthropologist study?
A.   fossils of dinosaurs
B.   Egyptian pyramids.
C.   fossils of human ancestors
D.   cultural norms and taboos.
Question #2
The six traits of humanness include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.   material culture.
B.   altruism.
C.   non-honing chewing
D.   bipedalism.
Question #3
The only source of brand new genetic material within a gene pool:
A.   gene flow.
B.   natural selection.
C.   genetic drift.
D.   mutation.
Question #4
Somatic cells include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.   nerve cells.
B.   sperm cells.
C.   lung cells.
D.   blood cells.
Question #5
Identical somatic cells are produced through the biological process of:
A.   mitosis.
B.   protein synthesis.
C.   meiosis.
D.   replication.
Question #6
In humans, the biological sex of the individual is determined by which pair of chromosomes?
A.   18th
B.   23rd
C.   21st
D.   13th
Question #7
In order for a given population to be in a state of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, there must be:
A.   a significant mutation rate from generation to generation.
B.   strong selection pressure on the trait(s) being studied.
C.   gene flow that is equal both into and out of the population.
D.   no gene flow, no genetic drift, no mutation, no natural selection.
Question #8
The physical location of a gene on the chromosome is called the:
A.   mutation.
B.   locus.
C.   chromosome.
D.   allele.
Question #9
Evolution can best be defined as:
A.   changes in the DNA of an individual over his or her lifetime.
B.   a process that occurs very quickly.
C.   the appearance of a new species.
D.   a change in allele frequencies in a breeding population over time.
Question #10
DNA is responsible for which two vital processes?
A.   replication and protein synthesis.
B.   mitosis and replication.
C.   mitosis and meiosis
D.   meiosis and protein synthesis.
Question #11
Australian aborigines are an endogamous society. This means that marriage and reproduction take place within the group, leading to:
A.   increased genetic diversity through genetic drift.
B.   decreased genetic diversity due to a lack of admixture or gene flow with other populations.
C.   more genetic diversity than would be observed in an exogamous society.
D.   migration without gene flow.
Question #12
In the case of the sickle-cell allele in humans, which genotype has the advantage in a geographical region where malaria is present (such as sub Saharan Africa or southern Europe)?
A.   haplozygous.
B.   homozygous dominant (AA).
C.   homozygous recessive (SS).
D.   Heterozygous (AS).
Question #13
The chromosomal abnormality, in which an extra copy of chromosome 21 is present, is more commonly known as:
A.   Edward’s syndrome.
B.   Down syndrome.
C.   Klinefelter’s syndrome.
D.   Turner syndrome.
Question #14
Create a Punnett Square: In humans, the allele that allows an individual to roll his or her tongue (R) is dominant over the inability to roll your tongue (r). Two parents that are heterozygous for this trait decide to have a child together. What is the probability that this child will be unable to roll his or her tongue?
A.   100%
B.   50%
C.   75%
D.   25%
Question #15
Create a Punnett Square: In humans, the allele for free hanging earlobes (E) is dominant over the allele for attached earlobes (e). A man with attached earlobes has a child with a woman that is heterozygous. What is the probability that their child will have attached earlobes?
A.   75%
B.   50%
C.   0%
D.   25%
Question #16
Create a Punnett Square: In humans that ability to taste PTC is controlled by a dominant allele (T). The inability to taste PTC is recessive (t). A man that is homozygous dominant has a child with a woman that cannot taste PTC. What is the probability that their child will be unable to taste PTC?
A.   0%
B.   50%
C.   75%
D.   25%
Question #17
Create a Punnett Square: In humans, there is a mutation that will cause abnormal hemoglobin formation. This condition is called sickle-cell anemia. If an individual has sickle-cell anemia, then their genotype must be homozygous recessive (SS). If an individual has completely normal hemoglobin, then they must be homozygous dominant (AA). If two parents with the heterozygous genotype (AS) have a child, what is the probability that their child will have sickle-cell anemia?
A.   100%
B.   75%
C.   50%
D.   25%
Question #18
Create a Punnett Square: A man with type AB blood has a child with a woman with type O blood. What is the probability that their child will have type B blood?
A.   75%
B.   25%
C.   50%
D.   0%
Question #19
Create a Punnett Square: In humans, color blindness is a sex-linked trait. If a female that is a carrier for colorblindness has a child with a man that has normal color vision, what is the probability that their male child will be colorblind?
A.   25%
B.   50%
C.   100%
D.   75%
Question #20
Within the cell of a eukaryote, which organelle will contain the nuclear DNA?
A.   ribosomes.
B.   cytoplasm.
C.   mitochondria.
D.   nucleus.
Question #21
Within the cell of a eukaryote, which organelle will contain the majority of the mitochondrial DNA?
A.   ribosomes.
B.   lysosomes.
C.   mitochondria.
D.   nucleus.
Question #22
The process of mitosis produces:
A.   identical, haploid cells.
B.   identical, diploid cells.
C.   unique, haploid cells.
D.   unique, diploid cells.
Question #23
The diploid (2n) number in humans is:
A.   46
B.   36
C.   48
D.   23
Question #24
The process of meiosis results in:
A.   identical, haploid cells.
B.   unique, haploid cells.
C.   identical, diploid cells.
D.   unique, diploid cells.
Question #25
The haploid (n) number in humans is:
A.   23
B.   48
C.   46
D.   36
Question #26
What force(s), occurring during meiosis, will create unique gametes?
A.   mutation and gene flow.
B.   replication and protein synthesis.
C.   nondisjunction.
D.   independent assortment and crossing over.
Question #27
In regards to human chromosomes and karyotyping, what is the typical or normal condition?
A.   quadrasomy.
B.   disomy.
C.   trisomy.
D.   monosomy.
Question #28
During what phase of mitosis would the sister chromatids be lined up along the equator of the
A.   prophase.
B.   metaphase.
C.   telophase.
D.   anaphase.
Question #29
During what phase of mitosis would the sister chormatids be separated and pulled to opposite poles of the cell by the spindle apparatus during a process called disjunction?
A.   prophase.
B.   telophase.
C.   metaphase.
D.   anaphase.
Question #30
The doctrine asserting that cataclysmic events (such as volcanic eruptions, floods, earthquakes, etc.) are responsible for major extinction events, rather than evolutionary processes is known as:
A.   natural selection.
B.   catastrophism.
C.   uniformitarianism.
D.   genetic drift.
Question #31
How was Darwin influenced by Thomas Malthus’s work on population growth?
A.   Darwin liked the concept of Latin taxonomic classification as it pertained to humans.
B.   Darwin was greatly influenced by research on acquired characteristics.
C.   Darwin was interested in Malthus’s examination of population changes in pea plants.
D.   Darwin was influenced by Malthus’s work on demography and population responses to food availability. Darwin was influenced by Malthus’s work on demography and population responses to food availability.
Question #32
The English scientist who independently co-discovered the theory of evolution by natural selection:
A.   Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck.
B.   Carolus Linnaeus.
C.   Alfred Russell Wallace.
D.   Charles Lyell.
Question #33
The major forces of evolution include:
A.   mutations, genes, and genetic drift.
B.   natural selection, genes, alleles, and chromosomes
C.   gene flow, mutations, chromosomes, and genes.
D.   natural selection, gene flow, genetic drift, and mutations.
Question #34
The father of modern genetics that discovered the mechanism of inheritance:
A.   Robert Hooke.
B.   Charles Lyell.
C.   Alfred Russell Wallace.
D.   Gregor Mendel.
Question #35
Darwin observed that adaptations:
A.   resulted from supernatural forces.
B.   were physical or behavior attributes that enhanced survival and reproduction.
C.   are not necessary for evolutionary change.
D.   did not vary among Galápagos finches living in different habitats.
Question #36
During what phase of mitosis and meiosis would the DNA replication occur?
A.   anaphase.
B.   prophase.
C.   interphase.
D.   metaphase.
Question #37
The case of lemurs living on Madagascar (geographically isolated from the parent population) is an excellent example of:
A.   sexual selection.
B.   gene flow.
C.   founder effect.
D.   mutation.
Question #38
The case of the sickle-cell trait in humans is an excellent example of which two evolutionary forces:
A.   natural selection and gene flow.
B.   mutation and natural selection.
C.   mutation and genetic drift.
D.   mutation and gene flow.
Question #39
How does RNA differ from DNA?
A.   guanine bonds with uracil.
B.   thymine bonds with uracil.
C.   cytosine bonds with uracil.
D.   adenine bonds with uracil.
Question #40
An individual that is homozygous at the locus that determines ABO blood type may have any of the following EXCEPT:
A.   type O blood.
B.   type B blood.
C.   type A blood.
D.   type AB blood.
Question #41
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, the p 2 ( p squared) portion represents the frequency of:
A.   homozygous dominant.
B.   heterozygous.
C.   haplozygous.
D.   homozygous recessive.
Question #42
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, the q 2 (q squared) portion represents the frequency of:
A.   haplozygous.
B.   homozygous recessive.
C.   homozygous dominant.
D.   heterozygous.
Question #43
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, the 2pq represents the frequency of:
A.   haplozygous.
B.   homozygous dominant.
C.   homozygous recessive.
D.   heterozygous.
Question #44
Human ABO blood type is an example of in humans, since both A and B are dominant alleles and expressed in the individual’s phenotype:
A.   sex-linked trait.
B.   pleiotropy.
C.   Mendelian inheritance.
D.   polymorphism.
Question #45
The term used to describe the physical expression of an individual’s genetic make-up:
A.   phenotype.
B.   pleiotrophy.
C.   genotype.
D.   polymorphism.
Question #46
Another name for the evolutionary force called gene flow is:
A.   transposition.
B.   founder effect.
C.   admixture.
D.   disruptive selection.
Question #47
Hardy-Weinberg Problem: In a population of 100 humans, 30 individuals display the recessive trait of inability to tongue roll (rr). What is the frequency of the homozygous dominant individuals?
A.   30%
B.   50%
C.   20%
D.   40%
Question #48
Hardy-Weinberg Problem: In a population of 100 humans, 36 individuals have a recessive trait of attached earlobes (ee). What is the frequency of the homozygous dominant individuals?
A.   8%
B.   16%
C.   36%
D.   48%
Question #49
Hardy-Weinberg Problem: In a population of 100 humans, 25 individuals have a recessive trait of albinism (aa). What is the frequency of the heterozygous individuals?
A.   25%
B.   35%
C.   75%
D.   50%
Question #50
Hardy-Weinberg Problem: In a hypothetical classroom population of 28 students, 9 students display the homozygous recessive condition of being unable to taste PTC. What is the percentage of students with the heterozygous genotype in this classroom population?
A.   42%
B.   49%
C.   36%
D.   28%

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