Anthropology 101 - Human Biological Evolution » Spring 2020 » Exam 1

Need help with your exam preparation?

Question #1
What would a Biological Anthropologist study?
A.   fossils of dinosaurs
B.   cultural norms and taboos.
C.   fossils of human ancestors
D.   Egyptian pyramids.
Question #2
The six traits of humanness include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.   altruism.
B.   non-honing chewing
C.   bipedalism.
D.   material culture.
Question #3
The only source of brand new genetic material within a gene pool:
A.   genetic drift.
B.   mutation.
C.   natural selection.
D.   gene flow.
Question #4
Somatic cells include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.   nerve cells.
B.   sperm cells.
C.   lung cells.
D.   blood cells.
Question #5
Identical somatic cells are produced through the biological process of:
A.   meiosis.
B.   replication.
C.   protein synthesis.
D.   mitosis.
Question #6
In humans, the biological sex of the individual is determined by which pair of chromosomes?
A.   13th
B.   21st
C.   18th
D.   23rd
Question #7
In order for a given population to be in a state of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, there must be:
A.   strong selection pressure on the trait(s) being studied.
B.   a significant mutation rate from generation to generation.
C.   gene flow that is equal both into and out of the population.
D.   no gene flow, no genetic drift, no mutation, no natural selection.
Question #8
The physical location of a gene on the chromosome is called the:
A.   locus.
B.   allele.
C.   mutation.
D.   chromosome.
Question #9
Evolution can best be defined as:
A.   a change in allele frequencies in a breeding population over time.
B.   changes in the DNA of an individual over his or her lifetime.
C.   a process that occurs very quickly.
D.   the appearance of a new species.
Question #10
DNA is responsible for which two vital processes?
A.   replication and protein synthesis.
B.   meiosis and protein synthesis.
C.   mitosis and meiosis
D.   mitosis and replication.
Question #11
Australian aborigines are an endogamous society. This means that marriage and reproduction take place within the group, leading to:
A.   increased genetic diversity through genetic drift.
B.   migration without gene flow.
C.   decreased genetic diversity due to a lack of admixture or gene flow with other populations.
D.   more genetic diversity than would be observed in an exogamous society.
Question #12
In the case of the sickle-cell allele in humans, which genotype has the advantage in a geographical region where malaria is present (such as sub Saharan Africa or southern Europe)?
A.   homozygous recessive (SS).
B.   Heterozygous (AS).
C.   haplozygous.
D.   homozygous dominant (AA).
Question #13
The chromosomal abnormality, in which an extra copy of chromosome 21 is present, is more commonly known as:
A.   Edward’s syndrome.
B.   Turner syndrome.
C.   Klinefelter’s syndrome.
D.   Down syndrome.
Question #14
Create a Punnett Square: In humans, the allele that allows an individual to roll his or her tongue (R) is dominant over the inability to roll your tongue (r). Two parents that are heterozygous for this trait decide to have a child together. What is the probability that this child will be unable to roll his or her tongue?
A.   75%
B.   100%
C.   50%
D.   25%
Question #15
Create a Punnett Square: In humans, the allele for free hanging earlobes (E) is dominant over the allele for attached earlobes (e). A man with attached earlobes has a child with a woman that is heterozygous. What is the probability that their child will have attached earlobes?
A.   50%
B.   75%
C.   0%
D.   25%
Question #16
Create a Punnett Square: In humans that ability to taste PTC is controlled by a dominant allele (T). The inability to taste PTC is recessive (t). A man that is homozygous dominant has a child with a woman that cannot taste PTC. What is the probability that their child will be unable to taste PTC?
A.   75%
B.   25%
C.   50%
D.   0%
Question #17
Create a Punnett Square: In humans, there is a mutation that will cause abnormal hemoglobin formation. This condition is called sickle-cell anemia. If an individual has sickle-cell anemia, then their genotype must be homozygous recessive (SS). If an individual has completely normal hemoglobin, then they must be homozygous dominant (AA). If two parents with the heterozygous genotype (AS) have a child, what is the probability that their child will have sickle-cell anemia?
A.   25%
B.   100%
C.   50%
D.   75%
Question #18
Create a Punnett Square: A man with type AB blood has a child with a woman with type O blood. What is the probability that their child will have type B blood?
A.   0%
B.   75%
C.   25%
D.   50%
Question #19
Create a Punnett Square: In humans, color blindness is a sex-linked trait. If a female that is a carrier for colorblindness has a child with a man that has normal color vision, what is the probability that their male child will be colorblind?
A.   75%
B.   50%
C.   25%
D.   100%
Question #20
Within the cell of a eukaryote, which organelle will contain the nuclear DNA?
A.   mitochondria.
B.   cytoplasm.
C.   ribosomes.
D.   nucleus.
Question #21
Within the cell of a eukaryote, which organelle will contain the majority of the mitochondrial DNA?
A.   nucleus.
B.   mitochondria.
C.   ribosomes.
D.   lysosomes.
Question #22
The process of mitosis produces:
A.   unique, haploid cells.
B.   unique, diploid cells.
C.   identical, diploid cells.
D.   identical, haploid cells.
Question #23
The diploid (2n) number in humans is:
A.   48
B.   23
C.   36
D.   46
Question #24
The process of meiosis results in:
A.   unique, haploid cells.
B.   unique, diploid cells.
C.   identical, diploid cells.
D.   identical, haploid cells.
Question #25
The haploid (n) number in humans is:
A.   48
B.   46
C.   36
D.   23
Question #26
What force(s), occurring during meiosis, will create unique gametes?
A.   independent assortment and crossing over.
B.   nondisjunction.
C.   mutation and gene flow.
D.   replication and protein synthesis.
Question #27
In regards to human chromosomes and karyotyping, what is the typical or normal condition?
A.   quadrasomy.
B.   monosomy.
C.   trisomy.
D.   disomy.
Question #28
During what phase of mitosis would the sister chromatids be lined up along the equator of the
A.   telophase.
B.   anaphase.
C.   metaphase.
D.   prophase.
Question #29
During what phase of mitosis would the sister chormatids be separated and pulled to opposite poles of the cell by the spindle apparatus during a process called disjunction?
A.   prophase.
B.   metaphase.
C.   telophase.
D.   anaphase.
Question #30
The doctrine asserting that cataclysmic events (such as volcanic eruptions, floods, earthquakes, etc.) are responsible for major extinction events, rather than evolutionary processes is known as:
A.   uniformitarianism.
B.   genetic drift.
C.   natural selection.
D.   catastrophism.
Question #31
How was Darwin influenced by Thomas Malthus’s work on population growth?
A.   Darwin was greatly influenced by research on acquired characteristics.
B.   Darwin was influenced by Malthus’s work on demography and population responses to food availability. Darwin was influenced by Malthus’s work on demography and population responses to food availability.
C.   Darwin liked the concept of Latin taxonomic classification as it pertained to humans.
D.   Darwin was interested in Malthus’s examination of population changes in pea plants.
Question #32
The English scientist who independently co-discovered the theory of evolution by natural selection:
A.   Alfred Russell Wallace.
B.   Carolus Linnaeus.
C.   Charles Lyell.
D.   Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck.
Question #33
The major forces of evolution include:
A.   natural selection, genes, alleles, and chromosomes
B.   gene flow, mutations, chromosomes, and genes.
C.   mutations, genes, and genetic drift.
D.   natural selection, gene flow, genetic drift, and mutations.
Question #34
The father of modern genetics that discovered the mechanism of inheritance:
A.   Alfred Russell Wallace.
B.   Gregor Mendel.
C.   Robert Hooke.
D.   Charles Lyell.
Question #35
Darwin observed that adaptations:
A.   resulted from supernatural forces.
B.   are not necessary for evolutionary change.
C.   did not vary among Galápagos finches living in different habitats.
D.   were physical or behavior attributes that enhanced survival and reproduction.
Question #36
During what phase of mitosis and meiosis would the DNA replication occur?
A.   prophase.
B.   anaphase.
C.   metaphase.
D.   interphase.
Question #37
The case of lemurs living on Madagascar (geographically isolated from the parent population) is an excellent example of:
A.   sexual selection.
B.   gene flow.
C.   founder effect.
D.   mutation.
Question #38
The case of the sickle-cell trait in humans is an excellent example of which two evolutionary forces:
A.   mutation and natural selection.
B.   mutation and gene flow.
C.   natural selection and gene flow.
D.   mutation and genetic drift.
Question #39
How does RNA differ from DNA?
A.   thymine bonds with uracil.
B.   guanine bonds with uracil.
C.   cytosine bonds with uracil.
D.   adenine bonds with uracil.
Question #40
An individual that is homozygous at the locus that determines ABO blood type may have any of the following EXCEPT:
A.   type B blood.
B.   type AB blood.
C.   type O blood.
D.   type A blood.
Question #41
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, the p 2 ( p squared) portion represents the frequency of:
A.   homozygous dominant.
B.   homozygous recessive.
C.   haplozygous.
D.   heterozygous.
Question #42
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, the q 2 (q squared) portion represents the frequency of:
A.   haplozygous.
B.   heterozygous.
C.   homozygous recessive.
D.   homozygous dominant.
Question #43
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, the 2pq represents the frequency of:
A.   haplozygous.
B.   heterozygous.
C.   homozygous recessive.
D.   homozygous dominant.
Question #44
Human ABO blood type is an example of in humans, since both A and B are dominant alleles and expressed in the individual’s phenotype:
A.   polymorphism.
B.   Mendelian inheritance.
C.   sex-linked trait.
D.   pleiotropy.
Question #45
The term used to describe the physical expression of an individual’s genetic make-up:
A.   genotype.
B.   pleiotrophy.
C.   phenotype.
D.   polymorphism.
Question #46
Another name for the evolutionary force called gene flow is:
A.   admixture.
B.   founder effect.
C.   transposition.
D.   disruptive selection.
Question #47
Hardy-Weinberg Problem: In a population of 100 humans, 30 individuals display the recessive trait of inability to tongue roll (rr). What is the frequency of the homozygous dominant individuals?
A.   40%
B.   20%
C.   30%
D.   50%
Question #48
Hardy-Weinberg Problem: In a population of 100 humans, 36 individuals have a recessive trait of attached earlobes (ee). What is the frequency of the homozygous dominant individuals?
A.   16%
B.   36%
C.   8%
D.   48%
Question #49
Hardy-Weinberg Problem: In a population of 100 humans, 25 individuals have a recessive trait of albinism (aa). What is the frequency of the heterozygous individuals?
A.   25%
B.   75%
C.   35%
D.   50%
Question #50
Hardy-Weinberg Problem: In a hypothetical classroom population of 28 students, 9 students display the homozygous recessive condition of being unable to taste PTC. What is the percentage of students with the heterozygous genotype in this classroom population?
A.   49%
B.   42%
C.   28%
D.   36%

Need help with your exam preparation?